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NEW QUESTION 1
A data owner has been tasked with assigning proper data classifications and destruction methods for various types of data contained within the environment.
Graphical user interface, application Description automatically generated
Does this meet the goal?
- A. Yes
- B. Not Mastered
NEW QUESTION 2
A company is developing a business continuity strategy and needs to determine how many staff members would be required to sustain the business in the case of a disruption.
Which of the following best describes this step?
- A. Capacity planning
- B. Redundancy
- C. Geographic dispersion
- D. Tabletop exercise
Capacity planning is the process of determining the resources needed to meet the demand for a service or product. It involves estimating the number of staff members required to sustain the business in the case of a disruption, as well as other factors such as equipment, space, and budget12.
Redundancy, geographic dispersion, and tabletop exercise are not directly related to determining the staff members needed for business continuity. Redundancy is the duplication of critical components or functions to increase reliability and availability2. Geographic dispersion is the distribution of resources across different locations to reduce the impact of a localized disaster2. Tabletop exercise is a simulation of a potential scenario that tests the effectiveness of a business continuity plan
NEW QUESTION 3
A user is trying unsuccessfully to send images via SMS. The user downloaded the images from a corporate email account on a work phone. Which of the following policies is preventing the user from completing this action?
- A. Application management
- B. Content management
- C. Containerization
- D. Full disk encryption
Content management is a policy that controls what types of data can be accessed, modified, shared, or transferred by users or applications. Content management can prevent data leakage or exfiltration by blocking or restricting certain actions, such as copying, printing, emailing, or sending data via SMS. If the user downloaded the images from a corporate email account on a work phone, the content management policy may prevent the user from sending the images via SMS to protect the confidentiality and integrity of the data.
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 10, Domain 2.0: Architecture and
Design, Objective 2.4: Explain the importance of embedded and specialized systems security 2
Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 12, Domain 3.0: Implementation, Objective 3.1: Implement
secure network architecture concepts 3 https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-data-loss-prevention
NEW QUESTION 4
Which of the following types of controls is a turnstile?
- A. Physical
- B. Detective
- C. Corrective
- D. Technical
A turnstile is a physical security control that regulates the entry and exit of people into a facility or an area. It can prevent unauthorized access, tailgating, etc., by requiring valid credentials or tokens to pass through
NEW QUESTION 5
A security analyst has received several reports of an issue on an internal web application. Users state they are having to provide their credentials twice to log in. The analyst checks with the application team and notes this is not an expected behavior. After looking at several logs, the analyst decides to run some commands on the gateway and obtains the following output:
Which of the following BEST describes the attack the company is experiencing?
- A. MAC flooding
- B. URL redirection
- C. ARP poisoning
- D. DNS hijacking
The output of the “netstat -ano” command shows that there are two connections to the same IP address and port number. This indicates that there are two active sessions between the client and server.
The issue of users having to provide their credentials twice to log in is known as a double login prompt issue. This issue can occur due to various reasons such as incorrect configuration of authentication settings, incorrect configuration of web server settings, or issues with the client’s browser.
Based on the output of the “netstat -ano” command, it is difficult to determine the exact cause of the issue. However, it is possible that an attacker is intercepting traffic between the client and server and stealing user credentials. This type of attack is known as C. ARP poisoning.
ARP poisoning is a type of attack where an attacker sends fake ARP messages to associate their MAC address with the IP address of another device on the network. This allows them to intercept traffic between the two devices and steal sensitive information such as user credentials.
NEW QUESTION 6
A network architect wants a server to have the ability to retain network availability even if one of the network switches it is connected to goes down. Which of the following should the architect implement on the server to achieve this goal?
- A. RAID
- B. UPS
- C. NIC teaming
- D. Load balancing
NIC Teaming is a feature that allows a server to be connected to multiple network switches, providing redundancy and increased network availability. If one of the switches goes down, the server will still be able to send and receive data through one of the other switches. To configure NIC Teaming in Windows Server, see Microsoft's documentation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/networking/technologies/nic-teaming. For more information on NIC Teaming and other network redundancy features, refer to the CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Official Text Book and Resources.
NEW QUESTION 7
A web architect would like to move a company's website presence to the cloud. One of the management team's key concerns is resiliency in case a cloud provider's data center or network connection goes down. Which of the following should the web architect consider to address this concern?
- A. Containers
- B. Virtual private cloud
- C. Segmentation
- D. Availability zones
Availability zones are the most appropriate cloud feature to address the concern of resiliency in case a cloud provider’s data center or network connection goes down. Availability zones are physically separate locations within an Azure region that have independent power, cooling, and networking. Each availability zone is made up of one or more data centers and houses infrastructure to support highly available, mission-critical applications. Availability zones are connected with high-speed, private fiber-optic networks. Azure services that support availability zones fall into two categories: Zonal services – you pin the resource to a specific zone (for example, virtual machines, managed disks, IP addresses), or Zone-redundant services – platform replicates automatically across zones (for example, zone-redundant storage, SQL Database). To achieve comprehensive business continuity on Azure, build your application architecture using the combination of availability zones with Azure region pairs. You can synchronously replicate your applications and data using availability zones within an Azure region for high-availability and asynchronously replicate across Azure regions for disaster recovery protection.
NEW QUESTION 8
A cybersecurity analyst needs to adopt controls to properly track and log user actions to an individual. Which of the following should the analyst implement?
- A. Non-repudiation
- B. Baseline configurations
- C. MFA
- D. DLP
Non-repudiation is the process of ensuring that a party involved in a transaction or communication cannot deny their involvement. By implementing non-repudiation controls, a cybersecurity analyst can properly track and log user actions, attributing them to a specific individual. This can be achieved through methods such as digital signatures, timestamps, and secure logging mechanisms.
* 1. CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives (SY0-601): https://www.comptia.jp/pdf/CompTIA%20Security%2B%20SY0-601%20Exam%20Objectives.pdf
* 2. Stewart, J. M., Chapple, M., & Gibson, D. (2021). CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-601. John Wiley & Sons.
NEW QUESTION 9
Which of the following Is the BEST reason to maintain a functional and effective asset management policy that aids in ensuring the security of an organization?
- A. To provide data to quantify risk based on the organization's systems
- B. To keep all software and hardware fully patched for known vulnerabilities
- C. To only allow approved, organization-owned devices onto the business network
- D. To standardize by selecting one laptop model for all users in the organization
An effective asset management policy helps an organization understand and manage the systems, hardware, and software it uses, and how they are used, including their vulnerabilities and risks. This information is crucial for accurately identifying and assessing risks to the organization, and making informed decisions about how to mitigate those risks. This is the best reason to maintain an effective asset management policy.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-601) 7th Edition by Emmett Dulaney, Chuck Easttom
NEW QUESTION 10
Which of the following would produce the closet experience of responding to an actual incident response scenario?
- A. Lessons learned
- B. Simulation
- C. Walk-through
- D. Tabletop
A simulation exercise is designed to create an experience that is as close as possible to a real-world incident response scenario. It involves simulating an attack or other security incident and then having security personnel respond to the situation as they would in a real incident. References: CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Exam Objectives: 1.1 Explain the importance of implementing security concepts, methodologies, and practices.
NEW QUESTION 11
Employees at a company are receiving unsolicited text messages on their corporate cell phones. The unsolicited text messages contain a password reset Link. Which of the attacks is being used to target the company?
- A. Phishing
- B. Vishing
- C. Smishing
- D. Spam
Smishing is a type of phishing attack which begins with an attacker sending a text message to an individual. The message contains social engineering tactics to convince the person to click on a malicious link or send sensitive information to the attacker. Criminals use smishing attacks for purposes like:
Learn login credentials to accounts via credential phishing Discover private data like social security numbers
Send money to the attacker Install malware on a phone
Establish trust before using other forms of contact like phone calls or emails
Attackers may pose as trusted sources like a government organization, a person you know, or your bank. And messages often come with manufactured urgency and time-sensitive threats. This can make it more difficult for a victim to notice a scam.
Phone numbers are easy to spoof with VoIP texting, where users can create a virtual number to send and receive texts. If a certain phone number is flagged for spam, criminals can simply recycle it and use a new one.
NEW QUESTION 12
Which Of the following supplies non-repudiation during a forensics investiga-tion?
- A. Dumping volatile memory contents first
- B. Duplicating a drive With dd
- C. a SHA 2 signature of a drive image
- D. Logging everyone in contact with evidence
- E. Encrypting sensitive data
A SHA 2 signature is a cryptographic hash function that produces a unique and fixed-length output for any given input. It can provide non-repudiation during a forensics investigation by verifying the integrity and authenticity of a drive image and proving that it has not been altered or tampered with since it was created
NEW QUESTION 13
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is evaluating the dangers involved in deploying a new ERP system for the company. The CISO categorizes the system, selects the controls that apply to the system, implements the controls, and then assesses the success of the controls before authorizing the system. Which of the following is the CISO using to evaluate the environment for this new ERP system?
- A. The Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis
- B. CIS Critical Security Controls
- C. NIST Risk Management Framework
- D. ISO 27002
The NIST Risk Management Framework (RMF) is a process for evaluating the security of a system and implementing controls to reduce potential risks associated with it. The RMF process involves categorizing the system, selecting the controls that apply to the system, implementing the controls, and then assessing the success of the controls before authorizing the system. For more information on the NIST Risk Management Framework and other security processes, refer to the CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Official Text Book and Resources.
NEW QUESTION 14
Which of the following controls would be the MOST cost-effective and time-efficient to deter intrusions at the perimeter of a restricted, remote military training area?
- A. Barricades
- B. Thermal sensors
- C. Drones
- D. Signage
- E. Motion sensors
- F. Guards
- G. Bollards
Barricades and signage are the most cost-effective and time-efficient controls to deter intrusions at the perimeter of a restricted, remote military training area. References:
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide Exam SY0-601, Chapter 7
NEW QUESTION 15
Which of the following are common VoIP-associated vulnerabilities? (Select two).
- A. SPIM
- B. Vishing
- C. VLAN hopping
- D. Phishing
- E. DHCP snooping
- F. Tailgating
SPIM (Spam over Internet Messaging) is a type of VoIP-associated vulnerability that involves sending unsolicited or fraudulent messages over an internet messaging service, such as Skype or WhatsApp. It can trick users into clicking on malicious links, downloading malware, providing personal or financial information, etc., by impersonating a legitimate entity or creating a sense of urgency or curiosity. Vishing (Voice Phishing) is a type of VoIP-associated vulnerability that involves making unsolicited or fraudulent phone calls over an internet telephony service, such as Google Voice or Vonage. It can trick users into disclosing personal or financial information, following malicious instructions, transferring money, etc., by using voice spoofing, caller ID spoofing, or interactive voice response systems.
NEW QUESTION 16
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