Improved SY0-701 Test Questions For CompTIA Security+ Exam Certification

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NEW QUESTION 1

An employee used a corporate mobile device during a vacation Multiple contacts were modified in the device vacation Which of the following method did attacker to insert the contacts without having 'Physical access to device?

  • A. Jamming
  • B. BluJacking
  • C. Disassoaatm
  • D. Evil twin

Answer: B

Explanation:
bluejacking is the sending of unsolicited messages over Bluetooth to Bluetooth-enabled devices such as mobile phones, PDAs or laptop computers. Bluejacking does not involve device hijacking, despite what the
name implies. In this context, a human might say that the best answer to the question is B. BluJacking, because it is a method that can insert contacts without having physical access to the device.

NEW QUESTION 2

An audit report indicates multiple suspicious attempts to access company resources were made. These attempts were not detected by the company. Which of the following would be the best solution to implement on the company's network?

  • A. Intrusion prevention system
  • B. Proxy server
  • C. Jump server
  • D. Security zones

Answer: A

Explanation:
An intrusion prevention system (IPS) is the best solution to implement on the company’s network to detect and prevent suspicious attempts to access company resources. An IPS is a network security technology that continuously monitors network traffic for malicious or anomalous activity and takes automated actions to block or mitigate it. An IPS can also alert the system administrators of any potential threats and provide detailed logs and reports of the incidents. An IPS can help the company to improve its security posture and prevent data breaches, unauthorized access, or denial-of-service attacks. References:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/cyberpedia/what-is-an-intrusion-prevention-system-ips
SY0-701 dumps exhibit https://www.forcepoint.com/cyber-edu/intrusion-prevention-system-ips

NEW QUESTION 3

A security engineer is reviewing the logs from a SAML application that is configured to use MFA, during this review the engineer notices a high volume of successful logins that did not require MFA from users who were traveling internationally. The application, which can be accessed without a VPB, has a policy that allows time-based tokens to be generated. Users who changed locations should be required to reauthenticate but have been Which of the following statements BEST explains the issue?

  • A. OpenID is mandatory to make the MFA requirements work
  • B. An incorrect browser has been detected by the SAML application
  • C. The access device has a trusted certificate installed that is overwriting the session token
  • D. The user’s IP address is changing between logins, bur the application is not invalidating the token

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 4

During an incident, a company's CIRT determines it is necessary to observe the continued network-based transactions between a callback domain and the malware running on an enterprise PC. Which of the following techniques would be BEST to enable this activity while reducing the nsk of lateral spread and the risk that the adversary would notice any changes?

  • A. Physically move the PC to a separate Internet point of presence.
  • B. Create and apply microsegmentation rules,
  • C. Emulate the malware in a heavily monitored DMZ segment
  • D. Apply network blacklisting rules for the adversary domain

Answer: C

Explanation:
Emulating the malware in a heavily monitored DMZ segment is the best option for observing network-based transactions between a callback domain and the malware running on an enterprise PC. This approach provides an isolated environment for the malware to run, reducing the risk of lateral spread and detection by the adversary. Additionally, the DMZ can be monitored closely to gather intelligence on the adversary's tactics and techniques. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, page 129

NEW QUESTION 5

A company recently experienced a major breach. An investigation concludes that customer credit card data was stolen and exfiltrated through a dedicated business partner connection to a vendor, who is not held to the same security contral standards. Which of the following is the MOST likely source of the breach?

  • A. Side channel
  • B. Supply chain
  • C. Cryptographic downgrade
  • D. Malware

Answer: B

Explanation:
A supply chain attack occurs when a third-party supplier or business partner is compromised, leading to an attacker gaining unauthorized access to the targeted organization's network. In this scenario, the dedicated business partner connection to a vendor was used to exfiltrate customer credit card data, indicating that the vendor's network was breached and used as a supply chain attack vector.

NEW QUESTION 6

During the onboarding process, an employee needs to create a password for an intranet account. The password must include ten characters, numbers, and letters, and two special characters. Once the password is created, the ‘company will grant the employee access to other company-owned websites based on the intranet profile. Which of the following access management concepts is the company most likely using to safeguard intranet accounts and grant access to multiple sites based on a user's intranet account? (Select two).

  • A. Federation
  • B. Identity proofing
  • C. Password complexity
  • D. Default password changes
  • E. Password manager
  • F. Open authentication

Answer: AF

Explanation:
Federation is an access management concept that allows users to authenticate once and access multiple applications or services that trust the same identity provider. Open authentication is a standard protocol that enables federation by allowing users to use their existing credentials from one service to access another service. The company is most likely using federation and open authentication to safeguard intranet accounts and grant access to multiple sites based on a user’s intranet account. For example, the company could use an identity provider such as Azure AD or Keycloak to manage the user identities and credentials for the intranet account, and then use open authentication to allow the users to access other company-owned websites without having to log in again. References:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit https://www.keycloak.org/
SY0-701 dumps exhibit https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/connect/whatis-fed

NEW QUESTION 7

A company has installed badge readers for building access but is finding unau-thorized individuals roaming the hallways Of the following is the most likely cause?

  • A. Shoulder surfing
  • B. Phishing
  • C. Tailgating
  • D. Identity fraud

Answer: C

Explanation:
Tailgating is a physical security threat that occurs when an unauthorized person follows an authorized person into a restricted area without proper identification or authorization. It can cause unauthorized individuals to roam the hallways after gaining access through badge readers installed for building access.

NEW QUESTION 8

A large bank with two geographically dispersed data centers Is concerned about major power disruptions at Both locations. Every day each location experiences very brief outages thai last (or a few seconds. However, during the summer a high risk of intentional under-voltage events that could last up to an hour exists, particularly at one of the locations near an industrial smelter. Which of the following is the BEST solution to reduce the risk of data loss?

  • A. Dual supply
  • B. Generator
  • C. PDU
  • D. Dally backups

Answer: B

Explanation:
A generator will provide uninterrupted power to the data centers, ensuring that they are not affected by any power disruptions, intentional or otherwise. This is more reliable than a dual supply or a PDU, and more effective than daily backups, which would not be able to protect against an outage lasting an hour.

NEW QUESTION 9

The technology department at a large global company is expanding its Wi-Fi network infrastructure at the headquarters building Which of the following should be closely coordinated between the technology, cybersecurity, and physical security departments?

  • A. Authentication protocol
  • B. Encryption type
  • C. WAP placement
  • D. VPN configuration

Answer: C

Explanation:
WAP stands for wireless access point, which is a device that allows wireless devices to connect to a wired network using Wi-Fi or Bluetooth. WAP placement refers to where and how WAPs are installed in a building or area.
WAP placement should be closely coordinated between the technology, cybersecurity, and physical security departments because it affects several aspects of network performance and security, such as:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit Coverage: WAP placement determines how well wireless devices can access the network throughout the building or area. WAPs should be placed in locations that provide optimal signal strength and avoid interference from other sources.
SY0-701 dumps exhibit Capacity: WAP placement determines how many wireless devices can connect to the network simultaneously without affecting network speed or quality. WAPs should be placed in locations that balance network load and avoid congestion or bottlenecks.
SY0-701 dumps exhibit Security: WAP placement determines how vulnerable wireless devices are to eavesdropping or hacking attacks from outside or inside sources. WAPs should be placed in locations that minimize exposure to unauthorized access and maximize encryption and authentication methods.

NEW QUESTION 10

Which of the technologies is used to actively monitor for specific file types being transmitted on the network?

  • A. File integrity monitoring
  • B. Honeynets
  • C. Tcpreplay
  • D. Data loss prevention

Answer: D

Explanation:
Data loss prevention (DLP) is a technology used to actively monitor for specific file types being transmitted on the network. DLP solutions can prevent the unauthorized transfer of sensitive information, such as credit card numbers and social security numbers, by monitoring data in motion.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 2: Technologies and Tools, pp. 99-102.

NEW QUESTION 11

A company reduced the area utilized in its datacenter by creating virtual networking through automation and by creating provisioning routes and rules through scripting. Which of the following does this example describe?

  • A. laC
  • B. MSSP
  • C. Containers
  • D. SaaS

Answer: A

Explanation:
laaS (Infrastructure as a Service) allows the creation of virtual networks, automation, and scripting to reduce the area utilized in a datacenter. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, Chapter 4

NEW QUESTION 12
A
candidate attempts to go to but accidentally visits http://comptiia.org. The malicious website looks exactly like the legitimate website. Which of the following best describes this type of attack?

  • A. Reconnaissance
  • B. Impersonation
  • C. Typosquatting
  • D. Watering-hole

Answer: C

Explanation:
Typosquatting is a type of cyberattack that involves registering domains with deliberately misspelled names of well-known websites. The attackers do this to lure unsuspecting visitors to alternative websites, typically for malicious purposes. Visitors may end up at these alternative websites by inadvertently mistyping the name of popular websites into their web browser or by being lured by a phishing scam. The attackers may emulate the look and feel of the legitimate websites and trick users into entering sensitive information or downloading malware.
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives
https://www.kaspersky.com/resource-center/definitions/what-is-typosquatting

NEW QUESTION 13

Which of the following BEST describes the method a security analyst would use to confirm a file that is downloaded from a trusted security website is not altered in transit or corrupted using a verified checksum?

  • A. Hashing
  • B. Salting
  • C. Integrity
  • D. Digital signature

Answer: A

Explanation:
Hashing is a cryptographic function that produces a unique fixed-size output (i.e., hash value) from an input (i.e., data). The hash value is a digital fingerprint of the data, which means that if the data changes, so too does the hash value. By comparing the hash value of the downloaded file with the hash value provided by the security website, the security analyst can verify that the file has not been altered in transit or corrupted.

NEW QUESTION 14

A penetration tester was able to compromise a host using previously captured network traffic. Which of the
following is the result of this action?

  • A. Integer overflow
  • B. Race condition
  • C. Memory leak
  • D. Replay attack

Answer: D

Explanation:
A replay attack is a form of network attack in which valid data transmission is maliciously or fraudulently repeated or delayed12. This can allow an attacker to compromise a host by resending a previously captured message, such as a password or a session token, that looks legitimate to the receiver1. A replay attack can be prevented by using methods such as random session keys, timestamps, or one-time passwords that expire after use12. A replay attack is different from an integer overflow, which is a type of software vulnerability that occurs when an arithmetic operation attempts to create a numeric value that is too large to be represented within the available storage space3. A race condition is another type of software vulnerability that occurs when multiple processes access and manipulate the same data concurrently, and the outcome depends on the order of execution3. A memory leak is a type of software defect that occurs when a program fails to release memory that is no longer needed, causing the program to consume more memory than necessary and potentially affecting the performance or stability of the system3.

NEW QUESTION 15

An organization is building a new headquarters and has placed fake cameras around the building in an attempt to discourage potential intruders. Which of the following kinds of controls describes this security method?

  • A. Detective
  • B. Deterrent
  • C. Directive
  • D. Corrective

Answer: B

Explanation:
A deterrent control is a type of security control that is designed to discourage potential intruders from attempting to access or harm a system or network. A deterrent control relies on the perception or fear of negative consequences rather than the actual enforcement of those consequences. A deterrent control can also be used to influence the behavior of authorized users by reminding them of their obligations and responsibilities. An example of a deterrent control is placing fake cameras around the building, as it can create the illusion of surveillance and deter potential intruders from trying to break in. Other examples of deterrent controls are warning signs, security guards, or audit trails. References:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit https://www.ibm.com/topics/security-controls
SY0-701 dumps exhibit https://www.f5.com/labs/learning-center/what-are-security-controls

NEW QUESTION 16
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