Amazon-Web-Services SOA-C01 Guidance 2021

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NEW QUESTION 1
An organization is trying to create various IAM users. Which of the below mentioned options is not a valid IAM username?

  • A. John.cloud
  • B. john@cloud
  • C. John=cloud
  • D. john#cloud

Answer: D

Explanation:
AWS Identity and Access Management is a web service which allows organizations to manage users and user permissions for various AWS services. Whenever the organization is creating an IAM user, there should be a unique ID for each user. The names of users, groups, roles, instance profiles must be alphanumeric, including the following common characters: plus (+., equal (=., comma (,., period (.., at (@., and dash (-..

NEW QUESTION 2
An Auto-Scaling group spans 3 AZs and currently has 4 running EC2 instances. When Auto Scaling needs to terminate an EC2 instance by default, AutoScaling will:
Choose 2 answers

  • A. Allow at least five minutes for Windows/Linux shutdown scripts to complete, before terminating the instance.
  • B. Terminate the instance with the least active network connection
  • C. If multiple instances meet this criterion, one will be randomly selected.
  • D. Send an SNS notification, if configured to do so.
  • E. Terminate an instance in the AZ which currently has 2 running EC2 instances.
  • F. Randomly select one of the 3 AZs, and then terminate an instance in that AZ.

Answer: CD

Explanation:
http://docs.aws.amazon.com/autoscaling/latest/userguide/as-instance-termination.html

NEW QUESTION 3
A user has setup an RDS DB with Oracle. The user wants to get notifications when someone modifies the security group of that DB. How can the user configure that?

  • A. It is not possible to get the notifications on a change in the security group
  • B. Configure SNS to monitor security group changes
  • C. Configure event notification on the DB security group
  • D. Configure the CloudWatch alarm on the DB for a change in the security group

Answer: C

Explanation:
Amazon RDS uses the Amazon Simple Notification Service to provide a notification when an Amazon RDS event occurs. These events can be configured for source categories, such as DB instance, DB security group, DB snapshot and DB parameter group. If the user is subscribed to a Configuration Change category for a DB security group, he will be notified when the DB security group is changed.

NEW QUESTION 4
A customer is leveraging Amazon Simple Storage Service in eu-west-1 to store static content for a web-based property. The customer is storing objects using the Standard Storage class. Where are the customer??s objects replicated?

  • A. A single facility in eu-west-1 and a single facility in eu-central-1
  • B. A single facility in eu-west-1 and a single facility in us-east-1
  • C. Multiple facilities in eu-west-1
  • D. A single facility in eu-west-1

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 5
A user has enabled session stickiness with ELB. The user does not want ELB to manage the cookie; instead he wants the application to manage the cookie. What will happen when the server instance, which is bound to a cookie, crashes?

  • A. The response will have a cookie but stickiness will be deleted
  • B. The session will not be sticky until a new cookie is inserted
  • C. ELB will throw an error due to cookie unavailability
  • D. The session will be sticky and ELB will route requests to another server as ELB keeps replicating the Cookie

Answer: B

Explanation:
With Elastic Load Balancer, if the admin has enabled a sticky session with application controlled stickiness, the load balancer uses a special cookie generated by the application to associate the session with the original server which handles the request. ELB follows the lifetime of the application-generated cookie corresponding to the cookie name specified in the ELB policy configuration. The load balancer only inserts a new stickiness cookie if the application response includes a new application cookie. The load balancer stickiness cookie does not update with each request. If the application cookie is explicitly removed or expires, the session stops being sticky until a new application cookie is issued.

NEW QUESTION 6
A user has created a launch configuration for Auto Scaling where CloudWatch detailed monitoring is disabled. The user wants to now enable detailed monitoring. How can the user achieve this?

  • A. Update the Launch config with CLI to set InstanceMonitoringDisabled = false
  • B. The user should change the Auto Scaling group from the AWS console to enable detailed monitoring
  • C. Update the Launch config with CLI to set InstanceMonitoring.Enabled = true
  • D. Create a new Launch Config with detail monitoring enabled and update the Auto Scaling group

Answer: D

Explanation:
CloudWatch is used to monitor AWS as well as the custom services. To enable detailed instance monitoring for a new Auto Scaling group, the user does not need to take any extra steps. When the user creates the AutoScaling launch config as the first step for creating an Auto Scaling group, each launch configuration contains a flag named InstanceMonitoring.Enabled. The default value of this flag is true. When the user has created a launch configuration with InstanceMonitoring.Enabled = false it will involve multiple steps to enable detail monitoring. The steps are:
Create a new Launch config with detailed monitoring enabled Update the Auto Scaling group with a new launch config Enable detail monitoring on each EC2 instance

NEW QUESTION 7
An application is generating a log file every 5 minutes. The log file is not critical but may be required only for verification in case of some major issue. The file should be accessible over the internet whenever required. Which of the below mentioned options is a best possible storage solution for it?

  • A. AWS S3
  • B. AWS Glacier
  • C. AWS RDS
  • D. AWS RRS

Answer: D

Explanation:
Amazon S3 stores objects according to their storage class. There are three major storage classes: Standard, Reduced Redundancy Storage and Glacier. Standard is for AWS S3 and provides very high durability. However, the costs are a little higher. Glacier is for archival and the files are not available over the internet. Reduced Redundancy Storage is for less critical files. Reduced Redundancy is little cheaper as it provides less durability in comparison to S3. In this case since the log files are not mission critical files, RRS will be a better option.

NEW QUESTION 8
When preparing for a compliance assessment of your system built inside of AWS. what are three best-practices for you to prepare for an audit?
Choose 3 answers

  • A. Gather evidence of your IT operational controls
  • B. Request and obtain applicable third-party audited AWS compliance reports and certifications
  • C. Request and obtain a compliance and security tour of an AWS data center for a pre-assessment security review
  • D. Request and obtain approval from AWS to perform relevant network scans and in-depth penetration tests of your system's Instances and endpoints
  • E. Schedule meetings with AWS's third-party auditors to provide evidence of AWS compliance that maps to your control objectives

Answer: ABD

NEW QUESTION 9
A user has configured an HTTPS listener on an ELB. The user has not configured any security policy which can help to negotiate SSL between the client and ELB. What will ELB do in this scenario?

  • A. By default ELB will select the first version of the security policy
  • B. By default ELB will select the latest version of the policy
  • C. ELB creation will fail without a security policy
  • D. It is not required to have a security policy since SSL is already installed

Answer: B

Explanation:
Elastic Load Balancing uses a Secure Socket Layer (SSL. negotiation configuration which is known as a Security Policy. It is used to negotiate the SSL connections between a client and the load balancer. If
the user has created an HTTPS/SSL listener without associating any security policy, Elastic Load Balancing will, by default, associate the latest version of the ELBSecurityPolicy-YYYY-MM with the load balancer.

NEW QUESTION 10
A user has configured ELB with Auto Scaling. The user suspended the Auto Scaling terminate process only for a while. What will happen to the availability zone rebalancing process (AZRebalance. during this period?

  • A. Auto Scaling will not launch or terminate any instances
  • B. Auto Scaling will allow the instances to grow more than the maximum size
  • C. Auto Scaling will keep launching instances till the maximum instance size
  • D. It is not possible to suspend the terminate process while keeping the launch active

Answer: B

Explanation:
Auto Scaling performs various processes, such as Launch, Terminate, Availability Zone Rebalance (AZRebalance. etc. The AZRebalance process type seeks to maintain a balanced number of instances across Availability Zones within a region. If the user suspends the Terminate process, the AZRebalance process can cause the Auto Scaling group to grow up to ten percent larger than the maximum size. This is because Auto Scaling allows groups to temporarily grow larger than the maximum size during rebalancing activities. If Auto Scaling cannot terminate instances, the Auto Scaling group could remain up to ten percent larger than the maximum size until the user resumes the Terminate process type.

NEW QUESTION 11
A user is displaying the CPU utilization, and Network in and Network out CloudWatch metrics data of a single instance on the same graph. The graph uses one Y-axis for CPU utilization and Network in and another Y-axis for Network out. Since Network in is too high, the CPU utilization data is not visible clearly on graph to the user. How can the data be viewed better on the same graph?

  • A. It is not possible to show multiple metrics with the different units on the same graph
  • B. Add a third Y-axis with the console to show all the data in proportion
  • C. Change the axis of Network by using the Switch command from the graph
  • D. Change the units of CPU utilization so it can be shown in proportion with Network

Answer: C

Explanation:
Amazon CloudWatch provides the functionality to graph the metric data generated either by the AWS services or the custom metric to make it easier for the user to analyse. It is possible to show the multiple metrics with different units on the same graph. If the graph is not plotted properly due to a difference in the unit data over two metrics, the user can change the Y-axis of one of the graph by selecting that graph and clicking on the Switch option.

NEW QUESTION 12
A user runs the command ??dd if=/dev/zero of=/dev/xvdfbs=1M?? on a fresh blank EBS volume attached to a Linux instance. Which of the below mentioned activities is the user performing with the command given above?

  • A. Creating a file system on the EBS volume
  • B. Mounting the device to the instance
  • C. Pre warming the EBS volume
  • D. Formatting the EBS volume

Answer: C

Explanation:
When the user creates a new EBS volume and is trying to access it for the first time it will encounter reduced IOPS due to wiping or initiating of the block storage. To avoid this as well as achieve the best performance it is required to pre warm the EBS volume. For a blank volume attached with a Linux OS, the ??dd?? command is used to write to all the blocks on the device. In the command ??dd if=/dev/zero of=/dev/xvdfbs=1M?? the parameter ??if =import file?? should be set to one of the Linux virtual devices, such as /dev/zero. The ??of=output file?? parameter should be set to the drive that the user wishes to warm. The ??bs?? parameter sets the block size of the write operation; for optimal performance, this should be set to 1 MB.

NEW QUESTION 13
A user has developed an application which is required to send the data to a NoSQL database. The user wants to decouple the data sending such that the application keeps processing and sending data but does not wait for an acknowledgement of DB. Which of the below mentioned applications helps in this scenario?

  • A. AWS Simple Notification Service
  • B. AWS Simple Workflow
  • C. AWS Simple Queue Service
  • D. AWS Simple Query Service

Answer: C

Explanation:
Amazon Simple Queue Service (SQS. is a fast, reliable, scalable, and fully managed message queuing service. SQS provides a simple and cost-effective way to decouple the components of an application. In this case, the user can use AWS SQS to send messages which are received from an application and sent to DB. The application can continue processing data without waiting for any acknowledgement from DB. The user can use SQS to transmit any volume of data without losing messages or requiring other services to always be available.

NEW QUESTION 14
A user has created a public subnet with VPC and launched an EC2 instance within it. The user is trying to delete the subnet. What will happen in this scenario?

  • A. It will delete the subnet and make the EC2 instance as a part of the default subnet
  • B. It will not allow the user to delete the subnet until the instances are terminated
  • C. It will delete the subnet as well as terminate the instances
  • D. The subnet can never be deleted independently, but the user has to delete the VPC first

Answer: B

Explanation:
A Virtual Private Cloud (VPC. is a virtual network dedicated to the user??s AWS account. A user can create a subnet with VPC and launch instances inside that subnet. When an instance is launched it will have a network interface attached with it. The user cannot delete the subnet until he terminates the instance and deletes the network interface.

NEW QUESTION 15
You have been asked to propose a multi-region deployment of a web-facing application where a controlled portion of your traffic is being processed by an alternate region.
Which configuration would achieve that goal?

  • A. Route53 record sets with weighted routing policy
  • B. Route53 record sets with latency based routing policy
  • C. Auto Scaling with scheduled scaling actions set
  • D. Elastic Load Balancing with health checks enabled

Answer: A

Explanation:
The question is asking ??a controlled portion of your traffic??, that would be established with weighted routing policy.
See: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/Route53/latest/DeveloperGuide/routing-policy.html

NEW QUESTION 16
A user has configured ELB with SSL using a security policy for secure negotiation between the client and load balancer. The ELB security policy supports various ciphers. Which of the below mentioned options helps identify the matching cipher at the client side to the ELB cipher list when client is requesting ELB DNS over SSL?

  • A. Cipher Protocol
  • B. Client Configuration Preference
  • C. Server Order Preference
  • D. Load Balancer Preference

Answer: C

Explanation:
Elastic Load Balancing uses a Secure Socket Layer (SSL. negotiation configuration which is known as a Security Policy. It is used to negotiate the SSL connections between a client and the load balancer. When client is requesting ELB DNS over SSL and if the load balancer is configured to support the Server Order Preference, then the load balancer gets to select the first cipher in its list that matches any one of the ciphers in the client's list. Server Order Preference ensures that the load balancer determines which cipher is used for the SSL connection.

NEW QUESTION 17
A user is trying to save some cost on the AWS services. Which of the below mentioned options will not help him save cost?

  • A. Delete the unutilized EBS volumes once the instance is terminated
  • B. Delete the AutoScaling launch configuration after the instances are terminated
  • C. Release the elastic IP if not required once the instance is terminated
  • D. Delete the AWS ELB after the instances are terminated

Answer: B

Explanation:
AWS bills the user on a as pay as you go model. AWS will charge the user once the AWS resource is allocated. Even though the user is not using the resource, AWS will charge if it is in service or allocated. Thus, it is advised that once the user??s work is completed he should:
Terminate the EC2 instance Delete the EBS volumes Release the unutilized Elastic IPs Delete ELB The AutoScaling launch configuration does not cost the user. Thus, it will not make any difference to the cost whether it is deleted or not.

NEW QUESTION 18
When assessing an organization s use of AWS API access credentials which of the following three credentials should be evaluated? Choose 3 answers

  • A. Key pairs
  • B. Console passwords
  • C. Access keys
  • D. Signing certificates
  • E. Security Group memberships

Answer: ACD

Explanation:
Reference:
http://media.amazonwebservices.com/AWS_Operational_Checklists.pdf

NEW QUESTION 19
Your organization's security policy requires that all privileged users either use frequently rotated passwords or one-time access credentials in addition to username/password.
Which two of the following options would allow an organization to enforce this policy for AWS users? Choose 2 answers

  • A. Configure multi-factor authentication for privileged 1AM users
  • B. Create 1AM users for privileged accounts
  • C. Implement identity federation between your organization's Identity provider leveraging the 1AM Security Token Service
  • D. Enable the 1AM single-use password policy option for privileged users

Answer: AB

Explanation:
See also: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/IAM/latest/UserGuide/best-practices.html
Enable MFA for privileged users
For extra security, enable multifactor authentication (MFA) for privileged IAM users (users who are allowed access to sensitive resources or APIs). With MFA, users have a device that generates a unique authentication code (a one-time password, or OTP) and users must provide both their normal credentials (like their user name and password) and the OTP. The MFA device can either be a special piece of hardware, or it can be a virtual device (for example, it can run in an app on a smartphone).

NEW QUESTION 20
An organization has added 3 of his AWS accounts to consolidated billing. One of the AWS accounts has purchased a Reserved Instance (RI. of a small instance size in the US-East-1a zone. All other AWS accounts are running instances of a small size in the same zone. What will happen in this case for the RI pricing?

  • A. Only the account that has purchased the RI will get the advantage of RI pricing
  • B. One instance of a small size and running in the US-East-1a zone of each AWS account will get the benefit of RI pricing
  • C. Any single instance from all the three accounts can get the benefit of AWS RI pricing if they are running in the same zone and are of the same size
  • D. If there are more than one instances of a small size running across multiple accounts in the same zone no one will get the benefit of RI

Answer: C

Explanation:
AWS consolidated billing enables the organization to consolidate payments for multiple Amazon Web Services (AWS. accounts within a single organization by making a single paying account. For billing purposes, consolidated billing treats all the accounts on the consolidated bill as one account. This means that all accounts on a consolidated bill can receive the hourly cost benefit of the Amazon EC2 Reserved Instances purchased by any other account. In this case only one Reserved Instance has been purchased by one account. Thus, only a single instance from any of the accounts will get the advantage of RI. AWS will implement the blended rate for each instance if more than one instance is running concurrently.

NEW QUESTION 21
An admin is planning to monitor the ELB. Which of the below mentioned services does not help the admin capture the monitoring information about the ELB activity?

  • A. ELB Access logs
  • B. ELB health check
  • C. CloudWatch metrics
  • D. ELB API calls with CloudTrail

Answer: B

Explanation:
The admin can capture information about Elastic Load Balancer using either:
CloudWatch Metrics ELB Logs files which are stored in the S3 bucket CloudTrail with API calls which can notify the user as well generate logs for each API calls The health check is internally performed by ELB and does not help the admin get the ELB activity.

NEW QUESTION 22
A user is planning to setup infrastructure on AWS for the Christmas sales. The user is planning to use Auto Scaling based on the schedule for proactive scaling. What advise would you give to the user?

  • A. It is good to schedule now because if the user forgets later on it will not scale up
  • B. The scaling should be setup only one week before Christmas
  • C. Wait till end of November before scheduling the activity
  • D. It is not advisable to use scheduled based scaling

Answer: C

Explanation:
Auto Scaling based on a schedule allows the user to scale the application in response to predictable load changes. The user can specify any date in the future to scale up or down during that period. As per Auto Scaling the user can schedule an action for up to a month in the future. Thus, it is recommended to wait until end of November before scheduling for Christmas.

NEW QUESTION 23
A user has configured ELB with two EBS backed instances. The user has stopped the instances for 1 week to save costs. The user restarts the instances after 1 week. Which of the below mentioned statements will help the user to understand the ELB and instance registration better?

  • A. There is no way to register the stopped instances with ELB
  • B. The user cannot stop the instances if they are registered with ELB
  • C. If the instances have the same Elastic IP assigned after reboot they will be registered with ELB
  • D. The instances will automatically get registered with ELB

Answer: C

Explanation:
Elastic Load Balancing registers the user??s load balancer with his EC2 instance using the associated IP address. When the instances are stopped and started back they will have a different IP address. Thus, they will not get registered with ELB unless the user manually registers them. If the instances are assigned the same Elastic IP after reboot they will automatically get registered with ELB.

NEW QUESTION 24
An organization is planning to use AWS for their production roll out. The organization wants to implement automation for deployment such that it will automatically create a LAMP stack, download the latest PHP installable from S3 and setup the ELB. Which of the below mentioned AWS services meets the requirement for making an orderly deployment of the software?

  • A. AWS Elastic Beanstalk
  • B. AWS CloudFront
  • C. AWS CloudFormation
  • D. AWS DevOps

Answer: C

Explanation:
AWS CloudFormation is an application management tool which provides application modelling, deployment, configuration, management and related activities. CloudFormation provides an easy way to create and delete the collection of related AWS resources and provision them in an orderly way. AWS CloudFormation automates and simplifies the task of repeatedly and predictably creating groups of related resources that power the user??s applications. AWS CloudFront is a CDN; Elastic Beanstalk does quite a few of the required tasks. However, it is a PAAS which uses a ready AMI. AWS Elastic Beanstalk provides an environment to easily develop and run applications in the cloud.

NEW QUESTION 25
A user has granted read/write permission of his S3 bucket using ACL. Which of the below mentioned options is a valid ID to grant permission to other AWS accounts (grantee. using ACL?

  • A. IAM User ID
  • B. S3 Secure ID
  • C. Access ID
  • D. Canonical user ID

Answer: D

Explanation:
An S3 bucket ACL grantee can be an AWS account or one of the predefined Amazon S3 groups. The user can grant permission to an AWS account by the email address of that account or by the canonical user ID. If the user provides an email in the grant request, Amazon S3 finds the canonical user ID for that account and adds it to the ACL. The resulting ACL will always contain the canonical user ID for the AWS account, and not the AWS account's email address.

NEW QUESTION 26
An organization (account ID 123412341234. has configured the IAM policy to allow the user to modify his credentials. What will the below mentioned statement allow the user to perform?
{
"Version": "2012-10-17",
"Statement": [{
"Effect": "Allow", "Action": [ "iam:AddUserToGroup",
"iam:RemoveUserFromGroup", "iam:GetGroup"
],
"Resource": "arn:aws:iam:: 123412341234:group/TestingGroup"
}]

  • A. The IAM policy will throw an error due to an invalid resource name
  • B. The IAM policy will allow the user to subscribe to any IAM group
  • C. Allow the IAM user to update the membership of the group called TestingGroup
  • D. Allow the IAM user to delete the TestingGroup

Answer: C

Explanation:
AWS Identity and Access Management is a web service which allows organizations to manage users and user permissions for various AWS services. If the organization (account ID 123412341234. wants their users to manage their subscription to the groups, they should create a relevant policy for that. The below mentioned policy allows the respective IAM user to update the membership of the group called MarketingGroup.
{
"Version": "2012-10-17",
"Statement": [{
"Effect": "Allow", "Action": [ "iam:AddUserToGroup",
"iam:RemoveUserFromGroup", "iam:GetGroup"
],
"Resource": "arn:aws:iam:: 123412341234:group/ TestingGroup "
}]

NEW QUESTION 27
A user has configured an SSL listener at ELB as well as on the back-end instances. Which of the below mentioned statements helps the user understand ELB traffic handling with respect to the SSL listener?

  • A. It is not possible to have the SSL listener both at ELB and back-end instances
  • B. ELB will modify headers to add requestor details
  • C. ELB will intercept the request to add the cookie details if sticky session is enabled
  • D. ELB will not modify the headers

Answer: D

Explanation:
When the user has configured Transmission Control Protocol (TCP. or Secure Sockets Layer (SSL. for both front-end and back-end connections of the Elastic Load Balancer, the load balancer forwards the request to the back-end instances without modifying the request headers unless the proxy header is enabled. SSL does not support sticky sessions. If the user has enabled a proxy protocol it adds the source and destination IP to the header.

NEW QUESTION 28
......

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