What Pinpoint CAS-003 Braindump Is

we provide Top Quality CompTIA CAS-003 vce which are the best for clearing CAS-003 test, and to get certified by CompTIA CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP). The CAS-003 Questions & Answers covers all the knowledge points of the real CAS-003 exam. Crack your CompTIA CAS-003 Exam with latest dumps, guaranteed!

Free CAS-003 Demo Online For CompTIA Certifitcation:

NEW QUESTION 1
A security administrator has been asked to select a cryptographic algorithm to meet the criteria of a new application. The application utilizes streaming video that can be viewed both on computers and mobile devices. The application designers have asked that the algorithm support the transport encryption with the lowest possible performance overhead. Which of the following recommendations would BEST meet the needs of the application designers? (Select TWO).

  • A. Use AES in Electronic Codebook mode
  • B. Use RC4 in Cipher Block Chaining mode
  • C. Use RC4 with Fixed IV generation
  • D. Use AES with cipher text padding
  • E. Use RC4 with a nonce generated IV
  • F. Use AES in Counter mode

Answer: EF

Explanation:
In cryptography, an initialization vector (IV) is a fixed-size input to a cryptographic primitive that is typically required to be random or pseudorandom. Randomization is crucial for encryption schemes to achieve semantic security, a property whereby repeated usage of the scheme under the same key does not allow an attacker to infer relationships between segments of the encrypted message.
Some cryptographic primitives require the IV only to be non-repeating, and the required randomness is derived internally. In this case, the IV is commonly called a nonce (number used once), and the primitives are described as stateful as opposed to randomized. This is because the IV need not be explicitly forwarded to a recipient but may be derived from a common state updated at both sender and receiver side. An example of stateful encryption schemes is the counter mode of operation, which uses a sequence number as a nonce.
AES is a block cipher. Counter mode turns a block cipher into a stream cipher. It generates the next keystream block by encrypting successive values of a "counter". The counter can be any function which produces a sequence which is guaranteed not to repeat for a long time, although an actual increment-by-one counter is the simplest and most popular.
Incorrect Answers:
A: AES in Electronic Codebook mode cannot be used to encrypt streaming video. You would need a stream cipher such as RC4 or AES in Counter Mode.
B: RC4 in Cipher Block Chaining mode cannot be used to encrypt streaming video. You would need a stream cipher such as RC4 (not in Cipher Block Chaining mode) or AES in Counter Mode.
C: You cannot use fixed IV generation for RC4 when encrypting streaming video.
D: AES with cipher text padding cannot be used to encrypt streaming video. You would need a stream cipher such as RC4 or AES in Counter Mode.
References: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Initialization_vector

NEW QUESTION 2
Engineers at a company believe a certain type of data should be protected from competitors, but the data owner insists the information is not sensitive. An information security engineer is implementing controls to secure the corporate SAN. The controls require dividing data into four groups: nonsensitive, sensitive but accessible, sensitive but export-controlled, and extremely sensitive. Which of
the following actions should the engineer take regarding the data?

  • A. Label the data as extremely sensitive.
  • B. Label the data as sensitive but accessible.
  • C. Label the data as non-sensitive.
  • D. Label the data as sensitive but export-controlle

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 3
Company.org has requested a black-box security assessment be performed on key cyber terrain. On area of concern is the company’s SMTP services. The security assessor wants to run reconnaissance before taking any additional action and wishes to determine which SMTP server is Internet-facing. Which of the following commands should the assessor use to determine this information?

  • A. dnsrecon –d company.org –t SOA
  • B. dig company.org mx
  • C. nc –v company.org
  • D. whois company.org

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 4
Company A has noticed abnormal behavior targeting their SQL server on the network from a rogue IP
address. The company uses the following internal IP address ranges: 192.10.1.0/24 for the corporate site and 192.10.2.0/24 for the remote site. The Telco router interface uses the 192.10.5.0/30 IP range.
Instructions: Click on the simulation button to refer to the Network Diagram for Company A. Click on Router 1, Router 2, and the Firewall to evaluate and configure each device.
Task 1: Display and examine the logs and status of Router 1, Router 2, and Firewall interfaces.
Task 2: Reconfigure the appropriate devices to prevent the attacks from continuing to target the SQL server and other servers on the corporate network.
CAS-003 dumps exhibit
CAS-003 dumps exhibit
CAS-003 dumps exhibit

  • A. Check the answer belowCAS-003 dumps exhibitWe have traffic coming from two rogue IP addresses: 192.10.3.204 and 192.10.3.254 (both in the 192.10.30.0/24 subnet) going to IPs in the corporate site subnet (192.10.1.0/24) and the remote site subnet (192.10.2.0/24). We need to Deny (block) this traffic at the firewall by ticking the following two checkboxes:CAS-003 dumps exhibit
  • B. Check the answer belowCAS-003 dumps exhibitWe have traffic coming from two rogue IP addresses: 192.10.3.204 and 192.10.3.254 (both in the 192.10.30.0/24 subnet) going to IPs in the corporate site subnet (192.10.1.0/24) and the remote site subnet (192.10.2.0/24). We need to Deny (block) this traffic at the firewall by ticking the following two checkboxes:CAS-003 dumps exhibit

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 5
An organization has recently deployed an EDR solution across its laptops, desktops, and server infrastructure. The organization’s server infrastructure is deployed in an IaaS environment. A database within the non-production environment has been misconfigured with a routable IP and is communicating with a command and control server.
Which of the following procedures should the security responder apply to the situation? (Choose two.)

  • A. Contain the server.
  • B. Initiate a legal hold.
  • C. Perform a risk assessment.
  • D. Determine the data handling standard.
  • E. Disclose the breach to customers.
  • F. Perform an IOC sweep to determine the impac

Answer: BF

NEW QUESTION 6
A software development manager is running a project using agile development methods. The company cybersecurity engineer has noticed a high number of vulnerabilities have been making it into production code on the project.
Which of the following methods could be used in addition to an integrated development environment to reduce the severity of the issue?

  • A. Conduct a penetration test on each function as it is developed
  • B. Develop a set of basic checks for common coding errors
  • C. Adopt a waterfall method of software development
  • D. Implement unit tests that incorporate static code analyzers

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 7
Company ABC is hiring customer service representatives from Company XYZ. The representatives reside at Company XYZ’s headquarters. Which of the following BEST prevents Company XYZ representatives from gaining access to unauthorized Company ABC systems?

  • A. Require each Company XYZ employee to use an IPSec connection to the required systems
  • B. Require Company XYZ employees to establish an encrypted VDI session to the required systems
  • C. Require Company ABC employees to use two-factor authentication on the required systems
  • D. Require a site-to-site VPN for intercompany communications

Answer: B

Explanation:
VDI stands for Virtual Desktop Infrastructure. Virtual desktop infrastructure is the practice of hosting a desktop operating system within a virtual machine (VM) running on a centralized server.
Company ABC can configure virtual desktops with the required restrictions and required access to systems that the users in company XYZ require. The users in company XYZ can then log in to the virtual desktops over a secure encrypted connection and then access authorized systems only. Incorrect Answers:
A: Requiring IPSec connections to the required systems would secure the connections to the required systems. However, it does not prevent access to unauthorized systems.
C: The question states that the representatives reside at Company XYZ’s headquarters. Therefore, they will be access Company ABC’s systems remotely. Two factor authentication requires that the user be present at the location of the system to present a smart card or for biometric authentication; two factor authentication cannot be performed remotely.
D: A site-to-site VPN will just create a secure connection between the two sites. It does not restrict access to unauthorized systems.
References:
http://searchvHYPERLINK "http://searchvirtualdesktop.techtarget.com/definition/virtualdesktop" irtualdesktop.techtarget.com/definition/virtual-desktop

NEW QUESTION 8
The Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of a small start-up company wants to set up offices around the country for the sales staff to generate business. The company needs an effective communication solution to remain in constant contact with each other, while maintaining a secure business environment. A junior-level administrator suggests that the company and the sales staff stay connected via free social medi

  • A. Which of the following decisions is BEST for the CEO to make?
  • B. Social media is an effective solution because it is easily adaptable to new situations.
  • C. Social media is an ineffective solution because the policy may not align with the business.
  • D. Social media is an effective solution because it implements SSL encryption.
  • E. Social media is an ineffective solution because it is not primarily intended for business applications.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Social media networks are designed to draw people’s attention quickly and to connect people is thus the main focus; security is not the main concern. Thus the CEO should decide that it would be ineffective to use social media in the company as it does not align with the company business. Incorrect Answers:
A: Social media is not designed to be easily adaptable to new situations in a workplace.
C: Social media does not necessarily make use of SSL encryption since it is designed to draw people’s attention and connect them quickly.
D: Social media, though a great channel for communication is not intended for business applications. References:
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, pp. 290-293

NEW QUESTION 9
A newly hired systems administrator is trying to connect a new and fully updated, but very customized, Android device to access corporate resources. However, the MDM enrollment process continually fails. The administrator asks a security team member to look into the issue. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason the MDM is not allowing enrollment?

  • A. The OS version is not compatible
  • B. The OEM is prohibited
  • C. The device does not support FDE
  • D. The device is rooted

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 10
Given the following information about a company’s internal network:
User IP space: 192.168.1.0/24
Server IP space: 192.168.192.0/25
A security engineer has been told that there are rogue websites hosted outside of the proper server space, and those websites need to be identified. Which of the following should the engineer do?

  • A. Use a protocol analyzer on 192.168.1.0/24
  • B. Use a port scanner on 192.168.1.0/24
  • C. Use an HTTP interceptor on 192.168.1.0/24
  • D. Use a port scanner on 192.168.192.0/25
  • E. Use a protocol analyzer on 192.168.192.0/25
  • F. Use an HTTP interceptor on 192.168.192.0/25

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 11
The risk manager at a small bank wants to use quantitative analysis to determine the ALE of running a business system at a location which is subject to fires during the year. A risk analyst reports to the risk manager that the asset value of the business system is $120,000 and, based on industry data, the exposure factor to fires is only 20% due to the fire suppression system installed at the site. Fires occur in the area on average every four years. Which of the following is the ALE?

  • A. $6,000
  • B. $24,000
  • C. $30,000
  • D. $96,000

Answer: A

Explanation:
Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) is mathematically expressed as: Asset value (AV) x Exposure Factor (EF) SLE = AV x EF = $120 000 x 20% = $ 24,000 (this is over 4 years)
Thus ALE = $ 24,000 / 4 = $ 6,000
References: hHYPERLINK
"http://www.financeformulas.net/Return_on_Investment.html"ttp://www.financeformulas.net/Retu rn_on_Investment.htHYPERLINK "http://www.financeformulas.net/Return_on_Investment.html"ml https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Risk_assessmeHYPERLINK "https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Risk_assessment"nt
Project Management Institute, A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK Guide), 5th Edition, Project Management Institute, Inc., Newtown Square, 2013, p. 198
McMillan, Troy and Robin Abernathy, CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) CAS-002 Cert Guide, Pearson Education, Indianapolis, 2015, p. 305

NEW QUESTION 12
A hospital’s security team recently determined its network was breached and patient data was accessed by an external entity. The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) of the hospital approaches the executive management team with this information, reports the vulnerability that led to the breach has already been remediated, and explains the team is continuing to follow the appropriate incident response plan. The executive team is concerned about the hospital’s brand reputation and asks the CISO when the incident should be disclosed to the affected patients. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate response?

  • A. When it is mandated by their legal and regulatory requirements
  • B. As soon as possible in the interest of the patients
  • C. As soon as the public relations department is ready to be interviewed
  • D. When all steps related to the incident response plan are completed
  • E. Upon the approval of the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) to release information to the public

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 13
A security engineer is working with a software development team. The engineer is tasked with ensuring all security requirements are adhered to by the developers. Which of the following BEST describes the contents of the supporting document the engineer is creating?

  • A. A series of ad-hoc tests that each verify security control functionality of the entire system at once.
  • B. A series of discrete tasks that, when viewed in total, can be used to verify and document each individual constraint from the SRTM.
  • C. A set of formal methods that apply to one or more of the programing languages used on the development project.
  • D. A methodology to verify each security control in each unit of developed code prior to committing the code.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 14
A new piece of ransomware got installed on a company’s backup server which encrypted the hard drives containing the OS and backup application configuration but did not affect the deduplication data hard drives. During the incident response, the company finds that all backup tapes for this server are also corrupt. Which of the following is the PRIMARY concern?

  • A. Determining how to install HIPS across all server platforms to prevent future incidents
  • B. Preventing the ransomware from re-infecting the server upon restore
  • C. Validating the integrity of the deduplicated data
  • D. Restoring the data will be difficult without the application configuration

Answer: D

Explanation:
Ransomware is a type of malware that restricts access to a computer system that it infects in some way, and demands that the user pay a ransom to the operators of the malware to remove the restriction.
Since the backup application configuration is not accessible, it will require more effort to recover the data.
Eradication and Recovery is the fourth step of the incident response. It occurs before preventing future problems.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Preventing future problems is part of the Lessons Learned step, which is the last step in the incident response process.
B: Preventing future problems is part of the Lessons Learned step, which is the last step in the incident response process.
C: Since the incident did not affect the deduplicated data, it is not included in the incident response process.
References: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ransomware
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, p. 249

NEW QUESTION 15
A well-known retailer has experienced a massive credit card breach. The retailer had gone through an audit and had been presented with a potential problem on their network. Vendors were authenticating directly to the retailer’s AD servers, and an improper firewall rule allowed pivoting from the AD server to the DMZ where credit card servers were kept. The firewall rule was needed for an internal application that was developed, which presents risk. The retailer determined that
because the vendors were required to have site to site VPN’s no other security action was taken.
To prove to the retailer the monetary value of this risk, which of the following type of calculations is needed?

  • A. Residual Risk calculation
  • B. A cost/benefit analysis
  • C. Quantitative Risk Analysis
  • D. Qualitative Risk Analysis

Answer: C

Explanation:
Performing quantitative risk analysis focuses on assessing the probability of risk with a metric measurement which is usually a numerical value based on money or time.
Incorrect Answers:
A: A residual risk is one that still remains once the risk responses are applied. Thus a Residual risk calculation is not required.
B: Cost Benefit Analysis is used for Quality Planning. This is not what is required.
D: A qualitative risk analysis entails a subjective assessment of the probability of risks. The scenario warrants a quantitative risk.
References:
Project Management Institute, A Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK Guide), 5th Edition, Project Management Institute, Inc., Newtown Square, 2013, pp. 373, 585, 589 Schwalbe, Kathy, Managing Information Technology Projects, Revised 6th Edition, Course Technology, Andover, 2011, pp. 421-447
Whitaker, Sean, PMP Training Kit, O’Reilly Media, Sebastopol, 2013, pp. 335-375

NEW QUESTION 16
An information security manager is concerned that connectivity used to configure and troubleshoot critical network devices could be attacked. The manager has tasked a network security engineer with meeting the following requirements:
Encrypt all traffic between the network engineer and critical devices. Segregate the different networking planes as much as possible.
Do not let access ports impact configuration tasks.
Which of the following would be the BEST recommendation for the network security engineer to present?

  • A. Deploy control plane protections.
  • B. Use SSH over out-of-band management.
  • C. Force only TACACS to be allowed.
  • D. Require the use of certificates for AAA.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 17
The administrator is troubleshooting availability issues on an FCoE-based storage array that uses deduplication. The single controller in the storage array has failed, so the administrator wants to move the drives to a storage array from a different manufacturer in order to access the data. Whichof the following issues may potentially occur?

  • A. The data may not be in a usable format.
  • B. The new storage array is not FCoE based.
  • C. The data may need a file system check.
  • D. The new storage array also only has a single controlle

Answer: B

Explanation:
Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) is a computer network technology that encapsulates Fibre Channel frames over Ethernet networks. This allows Fibre Channel to use 10 Gigabit Ethernet networks (or higher speeds) while preserving the Fibre Channel protocol.
When moving the disks to another storage array, you need to ensure that the array supports FCoE, not just regular Fiber Channel. Fiber Channel arrays and Fiber Channel over Ethernet arrays use different network connections, hardware and protocols. Fiber Channel arrays use the Fiber Channel protocol over a dedicated Fiber Channel network whereas FCoE arrays use the Fiber Channel
protocol over an Ethernet network. Incorrect Answers:
A: It is unlikely that the data will not be in a usable format. Fiber Channel LUNs appear as local disks on a Windows computer. The computer then creates an NTFS volume on the fiber channel LUN. The storage array does not see the NTFS file system or the data stored on it. FCoE arrays only see the underlying block level storage.
C: The data would not need a file system check. FCoE arrays use block level storage and do not check the file system. Any file system checks would be performed by a Windows computer. Even if this happened, the data would be accessible after the check.
D: The new storage array also having a single controller would not be a problem. Only one controller is required.
References: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fibre_HYPERLINK
"https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fibre_Channel_over_Ethernet"Channel_over_Ethernet

NEW QUESTION 18
A mature organization with legacy information systems has incorporated numerous new processes and dependencies to manage security as its networks and infrastructure are modernized. The Chief Information Office has become increasingly frustrated with frequent releases, stating that the organization needs everything to work completely, and the vendor should already have those desires built into the software product. The vendor has been in constant communication with personnel and groups within the organization to understand its business process and capture new software requirements from users. Which of the following methods of software development is this organization’s configuration management process using?

  • A. Agile
  • B. SDL
  • C. Waterfall
  • D. Joint application development

Answer: A

Explanation:
In agile software development, teams of programmers and business experts work closely together, using an iterative approach.
Incorrect Answers:
B: The Microsoft developed security development life cycle (SDL) is designed to minimize the security-related design and coding bugs in software. An organization that implements SDL has a central security team that performs security functions.
C: The waterfall model is a sequential software development processes, in which progress is seen as flowing steadily downwards through the phases of conception, initiation, analysis, design, construction, testing, production/implementation and maintenance.
D: The vendor is still responsible for developing the solution, Therefore this is not an example of joint application development.
References:
BOOK pp. 371, 374
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Waterfall_model

NEW QUESTION 19
......

Recommend!! Get the Full CAS-003 dumps in VCE and PDF From Thedumpscentre.com, Welcome to Download: https://www.thedumpscentre.com/CAS-003-dumps/ (New 555 Q&As Version)