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NEW QUESTION 1
An engineer used a posture check on a Microsoft Windows endpoint and discovered that the MS17-010 patch was not installed, which left the endpoint vulnerable to WannaCry ransomware. Which two solutions mitigate the risk of this ransomware infection? (Choose two.)

  • A. Configure a posture policy in Cisco Identity Services Engine to install the MS17-010 patch before allowing access on the network.
  • B. Set up a profiling policy in Cisco Identity Service Engine to check and endpoint patch level before allowing access on the network.
  • C. Configure a posture policy in Cisco Identity Services Engine to check that an endpoint patch level is met before allowing access on the network.
  • D. Configure endpoint firewall policies to stop the exploit traffic from being allowed to run and replicate throughout the network.
  • E. Set up a well-defined endpoint patching strategy to ensure that endpoints have critical vulnerabilities patched in a timely fashion.

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the Firepower Next Generation Intrustion Prevention System detectors from the left onto the correct definitions on the right.
350-701 dumps exhibit


Solution:
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/640/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guide-v64/detecting_specific_threats.html

Does this meet the goal?
  • A. Yes
  • B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 3
What is a characteristic of traffic storm control behavior?

  • A. Traffic storm control drops all broadcast and multicast traffic if the combined traffic exceeds the level within the interval.
  • B. Traffic storm control cannot determine if the packet is unicast or broadcast.
  • C. Traffic storm control monitors incoming traffic levels over a 10-second traffic storm control interval.
  • D. Traffic storm control uses the Individual/Group bit in the packet source address to determine if the packet is unicast or broadcast.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/7600/ios/12-1E/configuration/guide/storm.html

NEW QUESTION 4
Which SNMPv3 configuration must be used to support the strongest security possible?

  • A. asa-host(config)#snmp-server group myv3 v3 priv asa-host(config)#snmp-server user andy myv3 auth sha cisco priv des ciscXXXXXXXX asa-host(config)#snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 andy
  • B. asa-host(config)#snmp-server group myv3 v3 noauth asa- host(config)#snmp-server user andy myv3 auth sha cisco priv aes 256 ciscXXXXXXXX asa- host(config)#snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 andy
  • C. asa-host(config)#snmp- server group myv3 v3 noauth asa-host(config)#snmp-server user andy myv3 auth sha cisco priv 3des ciscXXXXXXXXasa-host(config)#snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 andy
  • D. asa- host(config)#snmp-server group myv3 v3 priv asa-host(config)#snmp-server user andy myv3 auth sha cisco priv aes 256 ciscXXXXXXXX asa-host(config)#snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 andy

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 5
Which two behavioral patterns characterize a ping of death attack? (Choose two.)

  • A. The attack is fragmented into groups of 16 octets before transmission.
  • B. The attack is fragmented into groups of 8 octets before transmission.
  • C. Short synchronized bursts of traffic are used to disrupt TCP connections.
  • D. Malformed packets are used to crash systems.
  • E. Publicly accessible DNS servers are typically used to execute the attack.

Answer: BD

Explanation:
Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ping_of_death

NEW QUESTION 6
What two mechanisms are used to redirect users to a web portal to authenticate to ISE for guest services? (Choose two.)

  • A. TACACS+
  • B. central web auth
  • C. single sign-on
  • D. multiple factor auth
  • E. local web auth

Answer: BE

Explanation:
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ise/2-2/admin_guide/b_ise_admin_guide_22/b_ise_admin_guide_22_chapter_01110.html

NEW QUESTION 7
How does Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud provide security for cloud environments?

  • A. It delivers visibility and threat detection.
  • B. It prevents exfiltration of sensitive data.
  • C. It assigns Internet-based DNS protection for clients and servers.
  • D. It facilitates secure connectivity between public and private networks.

Answer: A

Explanation:
https://www.content.shi.com/SHIcom/ContentAttachmentImages/SharedResources/FBLP/Cisco/Cisco-091919-Simple-IT-Whitepaper.pdf

NEW QUESTION 8
What is a language format designed to exchange threat intelligence that can be transported over the TAXII protocol?

  • A. STIX
  • B. XMPP
  • C. pxGrid
  • D. SMTP

Answer: A

Explanation:
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/web_security/scancenter/administrator/guide/b_ScanCenter_Administrator_Guide/b_ScanCenter_Administrator_Guide_chapter_0100011.pdf

NEW QUESTION 9
Which two preventive measures are used to control cross-site scripting? (Choose two.)

  • A. Enable client-side scripts on a per-domain basis.
  • B. Incorporate contextual output encoding/escaping.
  • C. Disable cookie inspection in the HTML inspection engine.
  • D. Run untrusted HTML input through an HTML sanitization engine.
  • E. SameSite cookie attribute should not be used.

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 10
Which two features of Cisco DNA Center are used in a Software Defined Network solution? (Choose two.)

  • A. accounting
  • B. assurance
  • C. automation
  • D. authentication
  • E. encryption

Answer: BC

Explanation:
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/cloud-systems-management/dna-center/index.html

NEW QUESTION 11
Which feature within Cisco Umbrella allows for the ability to inspect secure HTTP traffic?

  • A. File Analysis
  • B. SafeSearch
  • C. SSL Decryption
  • D. Destination Lists

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 12
What are the two most commonly used authentication factors in multifactor authentication? (Choose two.)

  • A. biometric factor
  • B. time factor
  • C. confidentiality factor
  • D. knowledge factor
  • E. encryption factor

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 13
Under which two circumstances is a CoA issued? (Choose two.)

  • A. A new authentication rule was added to the policy on the Policy Service node.
  • B. An endpoint is deleted on the Identity Service Engine server.
  • C. A new Identity Source Sequence is created and referenced in the authentication policy.
  • D. An endpoint is profiled for the first time.
  • E. A new Identity Service Engine server is added to the deployment with the Administration persona.

Answer: BD

Explanation:
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/security/ise/1.0/user_guide/ise10_prof_pol.html

NEW QUESTION 14
An MDM provides which two advantages to an organization with regards to device management? (Choose two.)

  • A. asset inventory management
  • B. allowed application management
  • C. Active Directory group policy management
  • D. network device management
  • E. critical device management

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 15
An engineer needs a solution for TACACS+ authentication and authorization for device administration. The engineer also wants to enhance wired and wireless network security by requiring users and endpoints to use 802.1X, MAB, or WebAuth. Which product meets all of these requirements?

  • A. Cisco Prime Infrastructure
  • B. Cisco Identity Services Engine
  • C. Cisco Stealthwatch
  • D. Cisco AMP for Endpoints

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 16
Which attack is commonly associated with C and C++ programming languages?

  • A. cross-site scripting
  • B. water holing
  • C. DDoS
  • D. buffer overflow

Answer: D

Explanation:
Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Buffer_overflow

NEW QUESTION 17
Which technology is used to improve web traffic performance by proxy caching?

  • A. WSA
  • B. Firepower
  • C. FireSIGHT
  • D. ASA

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 18
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