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NEW QUESTION 1
Universal Containers (UC) wants its closed Won opportunities to be synced to a Data Warehouse in near real time. UC has implemented Outbound Message to enable near real-time data sync. UC wants to ensure that communication between Salesforce and Target System is Secure. What Certificate is sent along with the Outbound Message?

  • A. The CA-Signed Certificate from the Certificate and Key Management menu.
  • B. The default Client Certificate from the Develop--> API Menu.
  • C. The default Client Certificate or a Certificate from Certificate and Key Management menu.
  • D. The Self-Signed Certificates from the Certificate & Key Management menu.

Answer: A

Explanation:
The CA-Signed Certificate from the Certificate and Key Management menu is the certificate that is sent along with the outbound message. An outbound message is a SOAP message that is sent from Salesforce to an external endpoint when a workflow rule or approval process is triggered. To ensure that the communication between Salesforce and the target system is secure, the outbound message can be signed with a certificate that is generated or uploaded in the Certificate and Key Management menu. The certificate must be CA-Signed, which means that it is issued by a trusted certificate authority (CA) that verifies the identity of the sender. The other options are not valid certificates for this purpose. The default client certificate from the Develop–> API Menu is a self-signed certificate that is used for testing purposes only and does not provide adequate security. The default client certificate or a certificate from Certificate and Key Management menu is too vague and does not specify whether the certificate is CA-Signed or self-signed. The self-signed certificates from the Certificate & Key Management menu are certificates that are generated by Salesforce without any verification by a CA, and they are not recommended for production use.
References: [Outbound Messages], [Sign Outbound Messages with a Certificate], [CA-Signed Certificates], [Default Client Certificate], [Self-Signed Certificates]

NEW QUESTION 2
Universal Containers wants to implement Single Sign-on for a Salesforce org using an external Identity Provider and corporate identity store.
What type of authentication flow is required to support deep linking'

  • A. Web Server OAuth SSO flow
  • B. Service-Provider-Initiated SSO
  • C. Identity-Provider-initiated SSO
  • D. StartURL on Identity Provider

Answer: B

Explanation:
Single sign-on (SSO) is an authentication method that enables users to access multiple applications with one login and one set of credentials4. There are two types of SSO flows that can be used with Salesforce as the service provider (SP) and an external identity provider (IdP)5:
Identity-and-Access-Management-Architect dumps exhibit Service-provider-initiated SSO: The user requests a resource from the SP, such as a Salesforce URL. The SP redirects the user to the IdP for authentication. The IdP authenticates the user and sends a SAML response to the SP. The SP validates the SAML response and grants access to the user5. This type of SSO flow supports deep linking, which means that the user can access a specific page within Salesforce without logging in again6.
Identity-and-Access-Management-Architect dumps exhibit Identity-provider-initiated SSO: The user logs in to the IdP and selects an app from a list of available apps. The IdP sends a SAML response to the SP. The SP validates the SAML response and grants access to the user5. This type of SSO flow does not support deep linking, which means that the user can only access the default landing page of Salesforce6.
References:
Identity-and-Access-Management-Architect dumps exhibit Single Sign-On
Identity-and-Access-Management-Architect dumps exhibit SAML SSO Flows
Identity-and-Access-Management-Architect dumps exhibit Deep Linking

NEW QUESTION 3
Universal Containers (UC) has implemented SAML-based Single Sign-On to provide seamless access to its Salesforce Orgs, financial system, and CPQ system. Below is the SSO implementation landscape.
Identity-and-Access-Management-Architect dumps exhibit
What role combination is represented by the systems in this scenario''

  • A. Financial System and CPQ System are the only Service Providers.
  • B. Salesforce Org1 and Salesforce Org2 are the only Service Providers.
  • C. Salesforce Org1 and Salesforce Org2 are acting as Identity Providers.
  • D. Salesforce Org1 and PingFederate are acting as Identity Providers.

Answer: B

Explanation:
In a SAML-based SSO scenario, the identity provider (IdP) is the system that performs authentication and passes the user’s identity and authorization level to the service provider (SP), which trusts the IdP and authorizes the user to access the requested resource1. In this case, PingFederate is the IdP that authenticates users for UC and sends SAML assertions to the SPs. The SPs are the systems that rely on PingFederate for authentication and provide access to their services based on the SAML assertions. The SPs in this scenario are Salesforce Org1, Salesforce Org2, Financial System, and CPQ System2. Therefore, the correct answer is B.
References:
Identity-and-Access-Management-Architect dumps exhibit SAML web-based authentication guide
Identity-and-Access-Management-Architect dumps exhibit SAML-based single sign-on: Configuration and Limitations

NEW QUESTION 4
An Identity and Access Management (IAM) Architect is recommending Identity Connect to integrate Microsoft Active Directory (AD) with Salesforce for user provisioning, deprovisioning and single sign-on (SSO).
Which feature of Identity Connect is applicable for this scenario?

  • A. When Identity Connect is in place, if a user is deprovisioned in an on-premise AD, the user's Salesforce session Is revoked Immediately.
  • B. If the number of provisioned users exceeds Salesforce license allowances, identity Connect will start disabling the existingSalesforce users in First-in, First-out (FIFO) fashion.
  • C. Identity Connect can be deployed as a managed package on salesforce org, leveraging High Availability of Salesforce Platform out-of-the-box.
  • D. When configured, Identity Connect acts as an identity provider to both Active Directory and Salesforce, thus providing SSO as a default feature.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Identity Connect is a tool that synchronizes user data between Microsoft Active Directory and Salesforce. It allows user provisioning, deprovisioning, and single sign-on (SSO) between multiple Active Directory domains and a single Salesforce org. One of the features of Identity Connect is that it can revoke the user’s Salesforce session immediately when the user is deprovisioned in an on-premise Active Directory. This can enhance security and compliance by preventing unauthorized access to Salesforce resources. References: Identity Connect Implementation Guide, Identity Connect Overview

NEW QUESTION 5
Universal Containers (UC) has decided to replace the homegrown customer portal with Salesforce Experience Cloud. UC will continue to use its third-party single sign-on (SSO) solution that stores all of its customer and partner credentials.
The first time a customer logs in to the Experience Cloud site through SSO, a user record needs to be created automatically.
Which solution should an identity architect recommend in order to automatically provision users in Salesforce upon login?

  • A. Just-in-Time (JIT) provisioning
  • B. Custom middleware and web services
  • C. Custom login flow and Apex handler
  • D. Third-party AppExchange solution

Answer: A

Explanation:
Just-in-Time (JIT) provisioning is a feature that allows Salesforce to create or update user records on the fly when users log in through an external identity provider. This eliminates the need for manual or batch user provisioning in Salesforce. References: Just-in-Time Provisioning for SAML and OpenID Connect, Identity 101: Design Patterns for Access Management

NEW QUESTION 6
Containers (UC) uses a legacy Employee portal for their employees to collaborate. Employees access the portal from their company’s internal website via SSO. It is set up to work with SiteMinder and Active Directory. The Employee portal has features to support posing ideas. UC decides to use Salesforce Ideas for voting and better tracking purposes. To avoid provisioning users on Salesforce, UC decides to integrate Employee portal ideas with Salesforce idea through the API. What is the role of Salesforce in the context of SSO, based on this scenario?

  • A. Service Provider, because Salesforce is the application for managing ideas.
  • B. Connected App, because Salesforce is connected with Employee portal via API.
  • C. Identity Provider, because the API calls are authenticated by Salesforce.
  • D. An independent system, because Salesforce is not part of the SSO setup.

Answer: D

Explanation:
D is correct because Salesforce is an independent system that is not part of the SSO setup between the Employee portal and Active Directory. Salesforce does not act as an IdP or an SP for the SSO, nor does it use a connected app to integrate with the Employee portal. Salesforce only exposes its API to allow the Employee portal to access its ideas feature.
A is incorrect because Salesforce is not a service provider for the SSO. The SSO is between the Employee portal and Active Directory, not between the Employee portal and Salesforce.
B is incorrect because Salesforce is not a connected app for the SSO. A connected app is a framework that enables an external application to integrate with Salesforce using APIs and standard protocols, such as SAML, OAuth, and OpenID Connect1. The Employee portal does not use any of these protocols to integrate with Salesforce, but only uses its API.
C is incorrect because Salesforce is not an identity provider for the SSO. The IdP is the system that authenticates users and issues tokens or assertions to allow access to other systems. In this scenario, the IdP is Active Directory, not Salesforce.
References: 1: Oauth Authorization flows in Salesforce - Apex Hours

NEW QUESTION 7
Users logging into Salesforce are frequently prompted to verify their identity.
The identity architect is required to provide recommendations so that frequency of prompt verification can be reduced.
What should the identity architect recommend to meet the requirement?

  • A. Implement 2FA authentication for the Salesforce org.
  • B. Set trusted IP ranges for the organization.
  • C. Implement a single sign-on for Salesforce using an external identity provider.
  • D. Implement multi-factor authentication for the Salesforce org.

Answer: B

Explanation:
To reduce the frequency of prompt verification for users logging into Salesforce, the identity architect should recommend setting trusted IP ranges for the organization. Trusted IP ranges are IP addresses that are considered safe for logging in without any additional verification. Users who log in from trusted IP ranges do not need to activate their computer or use a verification code. Trusted IP ranges can improve user convenience and security. References: Trusted IP Ranges, Set Trusted IP Ranges for Your Organization

NEW QUESTION 8
Universal Containers (UC) has an existing e-commerce platform and is implementing a new customer community. They do not want to force customers to register on both applications due to concern over the customers experience. It is expected that 25% of the e-commerce customers will utilize the customer community . The e-commerce platform is capable of generating SAML responses and has an existing
REST-ful API capable of managing users. How should UC create the identities of its e-commerce users with the customer community?

  • A. Use SAML JIT in the Customer Community to create users when a user tries to login to the community from the e-commerce site.
  • B. Use the e-commerce REST API to create users when a user self-register on the customer community and use SAML to allow SSO.
  • C. Use a nightly batch ETL job to sync users between the Customer Community and the e-commerce platform and use SAML to allow SSO.
  • D. Use the standard Salesforce API to create users in the Community When a User is Created in the e-Commerce platform and use SAML to allow SSO.

Answer: A

Explanation:
The best option for UC to create the identities of its e-commerce users with the customer community is to use SAML JIT in the customer community to create users when a user tries to login to the community from the e-commerce site. SAML JIT (Just-in-Time) is a feature that allows Salesforce to create or update user accounts based on the information provided in a SAML assertion from an identity provider (IdP). This feature enables UC to avoid duplicating user registration on both applications and provide a seamless single sign-on (SSO) experience for its customers. The other options are not optimal for this scenario. Using the e-commerce REST API to create users when a user self-registers on the customer community would require the user to register twice, once on the e-commerce site and once on the customer community, which would degrade the customer experience. Using a nightly batch ETL job to sync users between the customer community and the e-c ommerce platform would introduce a delay in user creation and synchronization, which could cause errors or inconsistencies. Using the standard Salesforce API to create users in the community when a user is created in the e-commerce platform would require UC to write custom code and maintain API integration, which could increase complexity and cost. References: [Just-in-Time Provisioning for SAML], [Single Sign-On], [SAML SSO Flows]

NEW QUESTION 9
The executive sponsor for an organization has asked if Salesforce supports the ability to embed a login widget into its service providers in order to create a more seamless user experience.
What should be used and considered before recommending it as a solution on the Salesforce Platform?

  • A. OpenID Connect Web Server Flo
  • B. Determine if the service provider is secure enough to store the client secret on.
  • C. Embedded Logi
  • D. Identify what level of UI customization will be required to make it match the service providers look and feel.
  • E. Salesforce REST api
  • F. Ensure that Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) connection for the integration is used.
  • G. Embedded Logi
  • H. Consider whether or not it relies on third party cookies which can cause browser compatibility issues.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Embedded Login is a feature that allows Salesforce to embed a login widget into any web page, such as a service provider’s site, to enable users to log in with their Salesforce credentials. However, Embedded Login relies on third-party cookies, which can cause browser compatibility issues and require users to adjust their browser settings. Therefore, this should be considered before recommending it as a solution on the Salesforce Platform. References: Embedded Login, Embedded Login Implementation Guide

NEW QUESTION 10
Universal Containers (UC) wants to build a custom mobile app for their field reps to create orders in salesforce. After the first time the users log in, they must be able to access salesforce upon opening the mobile app without being prompted to log in again. What Oauth flows should be considered to support this requirement?

  • A. Web Server flow with a Refresh Token.
  • B. Mobile Agent flow with a Bearer Token.
  • C. User Agent flow with a Refresh Token.
  • D. SAML Assertion flow with a Bearer Token.

Answer: AC

Explanation:
The OAuth 2.0 user-agent flow and the OAuth 2.0 web server flow are both suitable for building a custom mobile app that can access Salesforce data without prompting the user to log in again1. Both of these flows use a refresh token that can be used to obtain a new access token when the previous one expires2. The
user-agent flow uses the Canvas JavaScript SDK to obtain an OAuth token by using the login function in the SDK2. The web server flow redirects the user to the Salesforce OAuth authorization endpoint and then obtains an OAuth access token by making a POST request to the Salesforce OAuth token endpoint2. The mobile agent flow and the SAML assertion flow are not valid OAuth flows for Salesforce3.
References: OAuth Authorization Flows, Mastering Salesforce Canvas Apps, Access Data with API Integration

NEW QUESTION 11
An Identity and Access Management (IAM) architect is tasked with unifying multiple B2C Commerce sites and an Experience Cloud community with a single identity. The solution needs to support more than 1,000 logins per minute.
What should the IAM do to fulfill this requirement?

  • A. Configure both the community and the commerce sites as OAuth2 RPs (relying party) with an external identity provider.
  • B. Configure community as a Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) identity provider and enable Just-in-Time Provisioning to B2C Commerce.
  • C. Create a default account for capturing all ecommerce contacts registered on the community because person Account is not supported for this case.
  • D. Confirm performance considerations with Salesforce Customer Support due to high peaks.

Answer: A

Explanation:
According to the Salesforce documentation2, OAuth2 RPs (relying parties) are applications that use OAuth 2.0 for authentication and authorization with an external identity provider. This allows users to log in to multiple applications with a single identity provider account. The identity provider issues an access token to the relying party, which can be used to access protected resources on behalf of the user. This solution can support high volumes of logins per minute and unify multiple B2C Commerce sites and an Experience Cloud community with a single identity.

NEW QUESTION 12
Universal Containers (UC) wants to build a mobile application that twill be making calls to the Salesforce REST API. UC's Salesforce implementation relies heavily on custom objects and custom Apex code. UC does not want its users to have to enter credentials every time they use the app. Which two scope values should an Architect recommend to UC? Choose 2 answers.

  • A. Custom_permissions
  • B. Api
  • C. Refresh_token
  • D. Full

Answer: BC

Explanation:
The two scope values that an architect should recommend to UC are api and refresh_token. The api scope allows the app to access the Salesforce REST API and use custom objects and custom Apex code. The refresh_token scope allows the app to obtain a refresh token that can be used to get new access tokens without requiring the user to re-enter credentials. Option A is not a good choice because the custom_permissions scope allows the app to access custom permissions in Salesforce, but it does not affect how the app can access the REST API or avoid user re-authentication. Option D is not a good choice because the full scope allows the app to access all data accessible by the user, including the web UI and the API, but it may be unnecessary or insecure for UC’s requirement. References: OAuth 2.0 Web Server Authentication Flow, Digging Deeper int OAuth 2.0 on Force.com

NEW QUESTION 13
A global fitness equipment manufacturer uses Salesforce to manage its sales cycle. The manufacturer has a custom order fulfillment app that needs to request order data from Salesforce. The order fulfillment app needs to integrate with the Salesforce API using OAuth 2.0 protocol.
What should an identity architect use to fulfill this requirement?

  • A. Canvas App Integration
  • B. OAuth Tokens
  • C. Authentication Providers
  • D. Connected App and OAuth scopes

Answer: D

Explanation:
To integrate the order fulfillment app with the Salesforce API using OAuth 2.0 protocol, the identity architect should use a Connected App and OAuth scopes. A Connected App is a framework that enables an external application to integrate with Salesforce using APIs and standard protocols, such as OAuth 2.0. OAuth scopes are permissions that define the specific data that an external application can access or modify in Salesforce. To use OAuth 2.0 protocol, the identity architect needs to configure a Connected App in Salesforce and assign the appropriate OAuth scopes to it, such as “api” or “full”. References: Connected Apps, OAuth Scopes

NEW QUESTION 14
Northern Trail Outfitters (NTO) believes a specific user account may have been compromised. NTO inactivated the user account and needs U perform a forensic analysis and identify signals that could Indicate a breach has occurred.
What should NTO's first step be in gathering signals that could indicate account compromise?

  • A. Review the User record and evaluate the login and transaction history.
  • B. Download the Setup Audit Trail and review all recent activities performed by the user.
  • C. Download the Identity Provider Event Log and evaluate the details of activities performed by the user.
  • D. Download the Login History and evaluate the details of logins performed by the user.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The Experience ID is a unique identifier for each Experience Cloud site that can be used to customize the branding and user interface based on the OAuth/Open ID or SAML flows. The Experience ID can be passed as a URL parameter to Salesforce to determine which site the user is accessing. References: Experience ID, Customize Your Experience Cloud Site Login Process

NEW QUESTION 15
A financial services company uses Salesforce and has a compliance requirement to track information about devices from which users log in. Also, a Salesforce Security Administrator needs to have the ability to revoke the device from which users log in.
What should be used to fulfill this requirement?

  • A. Use multi-factor authentication (MFA) to meet the compliance requirement to track device information.
  • B. Use the Activations feature to meet the compliance requirement to track device information.
  • C. Use the Login History object to track information about devices from which users log in.
  • D. Use Login Flows to capture device from which users log in and store device and user information in a custom object.

Answer: B

Explanation:
To track information about devices from which users log in and revoke the device access, the identity architect should use the Activations feature. Activations are records that store information about the devices and browsers that users use to access Salesforce. Administrators can view, manage, and revoke activations for users from the Setup menu. Activations can help monitor and control user access from different devices. References: Activations, Manage Activations for Your Users

NEW QUESTION 16
Universal Containers (UC) uses Salesforce as a CRM and identity provider (IdP) for their Sales Team to seamlessly login to intemaJ portals. The IT team at UC is now evaluating Salesforce to act as an IdP for its remaining employees.
Which Salesforce license is required to fulfill this requirement?

  • A. External Identity
  • B. Identity Verification
  • C. Identity Connect
  • D. Identity Only

Answer: D

Explanation:
To use Salesforce as an IdP for its remaining employees, the IT team at UC should use the Identity Only license. The Identity Only license is a license type that enables users to access external applications that are integrated with Salesforce using single sign-on (SSO) or delegated authentication, but not access Salesforce objects or data. The other license types are not relevant for this scenario. References: Identity Only License, User Licenses

NEW QUESTION 17
Universal Containers is implementing Salesforce Identity to broker authentication from its enterprise single sign-on (SSO) solution through Salesforce to third party applications using SAML.
What rote does Salesforce Identity play in its relationship with the enterprise SSO system?

  • A. Identity Provider (IdP)
  • B. Resource Server
  • C. Service Provider (SP)
  • D. Client Application

Answer: C

Explanation:
To broker authentication from its enterprise SSO solution through Salesforce to third party applications using SAML, Salesforce Identity plays the role of a Service Provider (SP). A SP is an entity that relies on an Identity Provider (IdP) to authenticate and authorize users. In this scenario, the enterprise SSO solution is the IdP, Salesforce is the SP, and the third party applications are the Resource Servers or Client Applications. The SP receives a SAML assertion from the IdP and uses it to obtain an access token from the Resource Server or Client Application. References: SAML Single Sign-On Settings, Authorize Apps with OAuth

NEW QUESTION 18
Universal Containers built a custom mobile app for their field reps to create orders in Salesforce. OAuth is used for authenticating mobile users. The app is built in such a way that when a user session expires after Initial login, a new access token is obtained automatically without forcing the user to log in again. While that improved the field reps' productivity, UC realized that they need a "logout" feature.
What should the logout function perform in this scenario, where user sessions are refreshed automatically?

  • A. Invoke the revocation URL and pass the refresh token.
  • B. Clear out the client Id to stop auto session refresh.
  • C. Invoke the revocation URL and pass the access token.
  • D. Clear out all the tokens to stop auto session refresh.

Answer: A

Explanation:
The refresh token is used to obtain a new access token when the previous one expires. To revoke the user session, the logout function should invoke the revocation URL and pass the refresh token as a parameter. This will invalidate both the refresh token and the access token, and prevent the user from accessing Salesforce without logging in again2.
References:
Identity-and-Access-Management-Architect dumps exhibit Certification Exam Guide
Identity-and-Access-Management-Architect dumps exhibit Revoke OAuth Tokens

NEW QUESTION 19
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