How Many Questions Of N10-008 Free Demo

NEW QUESTION 1

An administrator wants to increase the availability of a server that is connected to the office network. Which of the following allows for multiple NICs to share a single IP address and offers maximum performance while providing fault tolerance in the event of a NIC failure?

• A. Multipathing
• B. Spanning Tree Protocol
• C. First Hop Redundancy Protocol
• D. Elasticity

Answer: A

Explanation:
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E19455-01/806-6547/6jffv7oma/index.html

NEW QUESTION 2

A company's web server is hosted at a local ISP. This is an example of:

• A. allocation.
• B. an on-premises data center.
• C. a branch office.
• D. a cloud provider.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 3

A network engineer needs to enable device monitoring using authentication and encryption. Which of the following protocols offers this option?

• A. ESP
• B. SNMPv3
• C. NetFIow
• D. SSLv3

Answer: B

Explanation:
SNMPv3 is a protocol that offers device monitoring using authentication and encryption. SNMP stands for Simple Network Management Protocol, and it is a standard way of collecting and organizing information about network devices, such as routers, switches, servers, printers, and so on. SNMPv3 is the latest version of SNMP, and it provides enhanced security features, such as data integrity, data origin authentication, data confidentiality, and access control. SNMPv3 can use different algorithms to encrypt and authenticate the communication between the network management system and the
network devices12. References:
✑ Network Monitoring Tools – CompTIA Network+ N10-006 – 2.12
✑ CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Exam Objectives, page 93

NEW QUESTION 4

An employee reports to a network administrator that internet access is not working. Which of the following should the administrator do FIRST?

• A. Establish a theory of probable cause.
• B. Identify symptoms.
• C. Determine if anything has changed.
• D. Ask the user to restart the computer.

Answer: C

Explanation:
When a user reports that internet access is not working, it is important to first determine if there have been any recent changes to the network or the user's computer that could have caused the issue. This could include changes to the network configuration, the installation of new software or hardware, or other events that could have impacted the user's ability to access the internet. By determining if anything has changed, the administrator can narrow down the possible causes of the issue and focus on addressing the most likely cause.

NEW QUESTION 5

The network engineer receives a new router to use for WAN connectivity. Which of the following best describes the layer the network engineer should connect the new router to?

• A. Core
• B. Leaf
• C. Distribution
• D. Access

Answer: C

Explanation:
The distribution layer is the layer that connects the access layer to the core layer in a hierarchical network design. The distribution layer is responsible for routing, filtering, and policy enforcement between the LAN and the WAN. A router is a layer 3 device that can perform these functions and connect to different WAN technologies.
References:
✑ CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 151
✑ CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Cert Guide, Deluxe Edition, page 322
✑ CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Exam Cram, page 233

NEW QUESTION 6

A user reports being unable to access network resources after making some changes in the office. Which of the following should a network technician do FIRST?

• A. Check the system’s IP address
• B. Do a ping test against the servers
• C. Reseat the cables into the back of the PC
• D. Ask what changes were made

Answer: D

Explanation:
When a user reports being unable to access network resources after making some changes, the network technician should first ask the user what changes were made. This information can help the technician identify the cause of the issue and determine the appropriate course of action.
References: CompTIA Network+ Certification Study Guide, Sixth Edition by Glen E. Clarke

NEW QUESTION 7

There are two managed legacy switches running that cannot be replaced or upgraded. These switches do not support cryptographic functions, but they are password protected. Which of the following should a network administrator configure to BEST prevent unauthorized access?

• A. Enable a management access list
• B. Disable access to unnecessary services.
• C. Configure a stronger password for access
• D. Disable access to remote management
• E. Use an out-of-band access method.

Answer: E

Explanation:
Using an out-of-band access method is the best way to prevent unauthorized access to the legacy switches that do not support cryptographic functions. Out-of-band access is a method of accessing a network device through a dedicated channel that is separate from the main network traffic. Out-of-band access can use physical connections such as serial console ports or dial-up modems, or logical connections such as VPNs or firewalls. Out-of-band access provides more security and reliability than in-band access, which uses the same network as the data traffic and may be vulnerable to attacks or failures. References: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios- xml/ios/fundamentals/configuration/15mt/fundamentals-15-mt-book/cf-out-band-mgmt.html

NEW QUESTION 8

Which of the following does OSPF use to communicate routing updates?

• A. Unicast
• B. Anycast
• C. Multicast
• D. Broadcast

Answer: C

Explanation:
OSPF uses multicast to communicate routing updates among routers within the same area. OSPF routers send and receive link-state advertisements (LSAs) using IP multicast addresses 224.0.0.5 (all OSPF routers) and 224.0.0.6 (all OSPF designated routers) 1. Multicast allows OSPF to send routing updates efficiently and selectively, without flooding the entire network or requiring acknowledgments from every router

NEW QUESTION 9

A network resource was accessed by an outsider as a result of a successful phishing
campaign. Which of the following strategies should be employed to mitigate the effects of phishing?

• A. Multifactor authentication
• B. Single sign-on
• C. RADIUS
• D. VPN

Answer: A

Explanation:
Multifactor authentication is a security measure that requires users to provide multiple pieces of evidence before they can access a network resource. This could include requiring users to enter a username, password, and a code sent to the user's mobile phone before they are allowed access. This ensures that the user is who they say they are, reducing the risk of malicious actors gaining access to network resources as a result of a successful phishing campaign.

NEW QUESTION 10

Which of the following technologies would MOST likely De used to prevent the loss of connection between a virtual server and network storage devices?

• A. Multipathing
• B. VRRP
• C. Port aggregation
• D. NIC teaming

Answer: D

Explanation:
NIC teaming is a technology that allows multiple network interface cards (NICs) to work together as a single logical interface, providing redundancy and load balancing. This can prevent the loss of connection between a virtual server and network storage devices if one of the NICs fails or becomes disconnected. References: [CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 2.0 Networking Concepts, Objective 2.5: Explain the purposes and use cases for advanced networking devices, Subobjective: NIC bonding/teaming

NEW QUESTION 11

A user from a remote office is reporting slow file transfers. Which of the following tools will an engineer MOST likely use to get detailed measurement data?

• A. Packet capture
• B. IPerf
• C. SIEM log review
• D. Internet speed test

Answer: B

Explanation:
An engineer will most likely use IPerf to get detailed measurement data about the user's slow file transfers. IPerf is a tool used for measuring network performance and bandwidth, and it can be used to measure the speed and throughput of file transfers from the remote office. It can also provide detailed information about the latency and jitter of the connection, which can be used to troubleshoot the slow file transfers. Reference: CompTIA Network+ Study Manual (Chapter 10, Page 214).

NEW QUESTION 12

Branch users are experiencing issues with videoconferencing. Which of the following will the company MOST likely configure to improve performance for these applications?

• A. Link Aggregation Control Protocol
• B. Dynamic routing
• C. Quality of service
• D. Network load balancer
• E. Static IP addresses

Answer: C

Explanation:
To improve performance for videoconferencing, the company should configure Quality of Service (QoS). This technology allows for the prioritization of network traffic, ensuring that videoconferencing traffic is given higher priority and therefore better performance. Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP), Dynamic routing, Network load balancer, and Static IP addresses are not directly related to improving performance for videoconferencing.
References:
✑ Network+ N10-007 Certification Exam Objectives, Objective 2.6: Given a scenario, implement and configure the appropriate wireless security and implement the appropriate QoS concepts.

NEW QUESTION 13

A user notifies a network administrator about losing access to a remote file server. The network administrator is able to ping the server and verifies the current firewall rules do not block access to the network fileshare. Which of the following tools would help identify which ports are open on the remote file server?

• A. dig
• B. nmap
• C. tracert
• D. nslookup

Answer: B

Explanation:
nmap is the tool that would help identify which ports are open on the remote file server. nmap stands for Network Mapper, which is a free and open-source tool that can perform various network scanning and discovery tasks. nmap can help identify which ports are open on a remote device by sending probes or packets to different ports and analyzing the responses. nmap can also provide information about the operating system, services, versions, firewalls, or vulnerabilities of the remote device. nmap can be useful for network administrators, security professionals, or hackers to monitor, audit, or attack network devices. References: [CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives], Nmap - Free Security Scanner For Network Exploration & Security Audits

NEW QUESTION 14

Which of the following is the physical topology for an Ethernet LAN?

• A. Bus
• B. Ring
• C. Mesh
• D. Star

Answer: D

Explanation:
In a star topology, all devices on a network connect to a central hub or switch, which acts as a common connection point. Ethernet LANs typically use a star topology, with each device connected to a central switch. References:
✑ Network+ N10-008 Objectives: 2.2 Explain common logical network topologies and their characteristics.

NEW QUESTION 15

A technician is configuring a static IP address on a new device in a newly created subnet. The work order specifies the following requirements:
• The IP address should use the highest address available in the subnet.
• The default gateway needs to be set to 172.28.85.94.
• The subnet mask needs to be 255.255.255.224.
Which of the following addresses should the engineer apply to the device?

• A. 172.28.85.93
• B. 172.28.85.95
• C. 172.28.85.254
• D. 172.28.85.255

Answer: A

Explanation:
https://www.tunnelsup.com/subnet-calculator/
IP Address: 172.28.85.95/27 Netmask: 255.255.255.224
Network Address: 172.28.85.64
Usable Host Range: 172.28.85.65 - 172.28.85.94
Broadcast Address: 172.28.85.95

NEW QUESTION 16
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