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NEW QUESTION 1

Why is infrared generally considered to be more secure to eavesdropping than multidirectional radio transmissions?

  • A. Because infrared eavesdropping requires more sophisticated equipment.
  • B. Because infrared operates only over short distances.
  • C. Because infrared requires direct line-of-sight paths.
  • D. Because infrared operates at extra-low frequencies (ELF).

Answer: C

Explanation:
Infrared is generally considered to be more secure to eavesdropping than multidirectional radio transmissions because infrared requires direct line-of-sight paths. Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 4: Cryptography (page 173).

NEW QUESTION 2

What are called user interfaces that limit the functions that can be selected by a user?

  • A. Constrained user interfaces
  • B. Limited user interfaces
  • C. Mini user interfaces
  • D. Unlimited user interfaces

Answer: A

Explanation:
Constrained user interfaces limit the functions that can be selected by a user.
Another method for controlling access is by restricting users to specific functions based on their role in the system. This is typically implemented by limiting available menus, data views, encryption, or by physically constraining the user interfaces.
This is common on devices such as an automated teller machine (ATM). The advantage of a constrained user interface is that it limits potential avenues of attack and system failure by restricting the processing options that are available to the user.
On an ATM machine, if a user does not have a checking account with the bank he or she will not be shown the ??Withdraw money from checking?? option. Likewise, an information system might have an ??Add/Remove Users?? menu option for administrators, but if a normal, non-administrative user logs in he or she will not even see that menu option. By not even identifying potential options for non-qualifying users, the system limits the potentially harmful execution of unauthorized system or application commands.
Many database management systems have the concept of ??views.?? A database view is an extract of the data stored in the database that is filtered based on predefined user or system criteria. This permits multiple users to access the same database while only having the ability to access data they need (or are allowed to have) and not data for another user. The use of database views is another example of a constrained user interface.
The following were incorrect answers:
All of the other choices presented were bogus answers.
The following reference(s) were used for this question:
Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition ((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 1989-2002). Auerbach Publications. Kindle Edition.

NEW QUESTION 3

Which of the following is the biggest concern with firewall security?

  • A. Internal hackers
  • B. Complex configuration rules leading to misconfiguration
  • C. Buffer overflows
  • D. Distributed denial of service (DDOS) attacks

Answer: B

Explanation:
Firewalls tend to give a false sense of security. They can be very hard to bypass but they need to be properly configured. The complexity of configuration rules can introduce a vulnerability when the person responsible for its configuration does not fully understand all possible options and switches. Denial of service attacks mainly concerns availability.
Source: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-
Hill/Osborne, 2002, Chapter 3: Telecommunications and Network Security (page 412).

NEW QUESTION 4

What security model implies a central authority that define rules and sometimes global rules, dictating what subjects can have access to what objects?

  • A. Flow Model
  • B. Discretionary access control
  • C. Mandatory access control
  • D. Non-discretionary access control

Answer: D

Explanation:
As a security administrator you might configure user profiles so that users cannot change the system??s time, alter system configuration files, access a command prompt, or install unapproved applications. This type of access control is referred to as nondiscretionary, meaning that access decisions are not made at the discretion of the user. Nondiscretionary access controls are put into place by an authoritative entity (usually a security administrator) with the goal of protecting the organization??s most critical assets.
Non-discretionary access control is when a central authority determines what subjects can have access to what objects based on the organizational security policy. Centralized access control is not an existing security model.
Both, Rule Based Access Control (RuBAC or RBAC) and Role Based Access Controls (RBAC) falls into this category.
Reference(s) used for this question:
Harris, Shon (2012-10-18). CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, 6th Edition (p. 221). McGraw- Hill. Kindle Edition.
and
KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 2: Access control systems (page 33).

NEW QUESTION 5

This type of attack is generally most applicable to public-key cryptosystems, what type of attack am I ?

  • A. Chosen-Ciphertext attack
  • B. Ciphertext-only attack
  • C. Plaintext Only Attack
  • D. Adaptive-Chosen-Plaintext attack

Answer: A

Explanation:
A chosen-ciphertext attack is one in which cryptanalyst may choose a piece of ciphertext and attempt to obtain the corresponding decrypted plaintext. This type of attack is generally most applicable to public-key cryptosystems.
A chosen-ciphertext attack (CCA) is an attack model for cryptanalysis in which the cryptanalyst gathers information, at least in part, by choosing a ciphertext and obtaining its decryption under an unknown key. In the attack, an adversary has a chance to enter one or more known ciphertexts into the system and obtain the resulting plaintexts. From these pieces of information the adversary can attempt to recover the hidden secret key used for decryption.
A number of otherwise secure schemes can be defeated under chosen-ciphertext attack. For example, the El Gamal cryptosystem is semantically secure under chosen-plaintext attack, but this semantic security can be trivially defeated under a chosen-ciphertext attack. Early versions of RSA padding used in the SSL protocol were vulnerable to a sophisticated adaptive chosen-ciphertext attack which revealed SSL session keys. Chosen-ciphertext attacks have implications for some self-synchronizing stream ciphers as well. Designers of tamper-resistant cryptographic smart cards must be particularly cognizant of these attacks, as these devices may be completely under the control of an adversary, who can issue a large number of chosen-ciphertexts in an attempt to recover the hidden secret key.
According to RSA:
Cryptanalytic attacks are generally classified into six categories that distinguish the kind of information the cryptanalyst has available to mount an attack. The categories of attack are listed here roughly in increasing order of the quality of information available to the cryptanalyst, or, equivalently, in decreasing order of the level of difficulty to the cryptanalyst. The objective of the cryptanalyst in all cases is to be able to decrypt new pieces of ciphertext without additional information. The ideal for a cryptanalyst is to extract the secret key.
A ciphertext-only attack is one in which the cryptanalyst obtains a sample of ciphertext, without the plaintext associated with it. This data is relatively easy to obtain in many scenarios, but a successful ciphertext-only attack is generally difficult, and requires a very large ciphertext sample. Such attack was possible on cipher using Code Book Mode where frequency analysis was being used and even thou only the ciphertext was available, it was still possible to eventually collect enough data and decipher it without having the key.
A known-plaintext attack is one in which the cryptanalyst obtains a sample of ciphertext and the corresponding plaintext as well. The known-plaintext attack (KPA) or crib is an attack model for cryptanalysis where the attacker has samples of both the plaintext and its
encrypted version (ciphertext), and is at liberty to make use of them to reveal further secret information such as secret keys and code books.
A chosen-plaintext attack is one in which the cryptanalyst is able to choose a quantity of plaintext and then obtain the corresponding encrypted ciphertext. A chosen-plaintext attack (CPA) is an attack model for cryptanalysis which presumes that the attacker has the capability to choose arbitrary plaintexts to be encrypted and obtain the corresponding ciphertexts. The goal of the attack is to gain some further information which reduces the security of the encryption scheme. In the worst case, a chosen-plaintext attack could reveal the scheme's secret key.
This appears, at first glance, to be an unrealistic model; it would certainly be unlikely that an attacker could persuade a human cryptographer to encrypt large amounts of plaintexts of the attacker's choosing. Modern cryptography, on the other hand, is implemented in software or hardware and is used for a diverse range of applications; for many cases, a chosen-plaintext attack is often very feasible. Chosen-plaintext attacks become extremely important in the context of public key cryptography, where the encryption key is public and attackers can encrypt any plaintext they choose.
Any cipher that can prevent chosen-plaintext attacks is then also guaranteed to be secure against known-plaintext and ciphertext-only attacks; this is a conservative approach to security.
Two forms of chosen-plaintext attack can be distinguished:
Batch chosen-plaintext attack, where the cryptanalyst chooses all plaintexts before any of them are encrypted. This is often the meaning of an unqualified use of "chosen-plaintext attack".
Adaptive chosen-plaintext attack, is a special case of chosen-plaintext attack in which the cryptanalyst is able to choose plaintext samples dynamically, and alter his or her choices based on the results of previous encryptions. The cryptanalyst makes a series of interactive queries, choosing subsequent plaintexts based on the information from the previous encryptions.
Non-randomized (deterministic) public key encryption algorithms are vulnerable to simple "dictionary"-type attacks, where the attacker builds a table of likely messages and their corresponding ciphertexts. To find the decryption of some observed ciphertext, the attacker simply looks the ciphertext up in the table. As a result, public-key definitions of security under chosen-plaintext attack require probabilistic encryption (i.e., randomized encryption).
Conventional symmetric ciphers, in which the same key is used to encrypt and decrypt a text, may also be vulnerable to other forms of chosen-plaintext attack, for example, differential cryptanalysis of block ciphers.
An adaptive-chosen-ciphertext is the adaptive version of the above attack. A cryptanalyst can mount an attack of this type in a scenario in which he has free use of a piece of decryption hardware, but is unable to extract the decryption key from it.
An adaptive chosen-ciphertext attack (abbreviated as CCA2) is an interactive form of chosen-ciphertext attack in which an attacker sends a number of ciphertexts to be decrypted, then uses the results of these decryptions to select subsequent ciphertexts. It is to be distinguished from an indifferent chosen-ciphertext attack (CCA1).
The goal of this attack is to gradually reveal information about an encrypted message, or about the decryption key itself. For public-key systems, adaptive-chosen-ciphertexts are generally applicable only when they have the property of ciphertext malleability ?? that is, a ciphertext can be modified in specific ways that will have a predictable effect on the decryption of that message.
A Plaintext Only Attack is simply a bogus detractor. If you have the plaintext only then there is no need to perform any attack.
References:
RSA Laboratories FAQs about today's cryptography: What are some of the basic types of cryptanalytic attack?
also see: http://www.giac.org/resources/whitepaper/cryptography/57.php and
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Chosen-plaintext_attack

NEW QUESTION 6

Hierarchical Storage Management (HSM) is commonly employed in:

  • A. very large data retrieval systems
  • B. very small data retrieval systems
  • C. shorter data retrieval systems
  • D. most data retrieval systems

Answer: A

Explanation:
Hierarchical Storage Management (HSM) is commonly employed in very large data retrieval systems.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 71.

NEW QUESTION 7

Who should measure the effectiveness of Information System security related controls in an organization?

  • A. The local security specialist
  • B. The business manager
  • C. The systems auditor
  • D. The central security manager

Answer: C

Explanation:
It is the systems auditor that should lead the effort to ensure that the security controls are in place and effective. The audit would verify that the controls comply with polices, procedures, laws, and regulations where applicable. The findings would provide these to senior management.
The following answers are incorrect:
the local security specialist. Is incorrect because an independent review should take place by a third party. The security specialist might offer mitigation strategies but it is the auditor that would ensure the effectiveness of the controls
the business manager. Is incorrect because the business manager would be responsible that the controls are in place, but it is the auditor that would ensure the effectiveness of the controls.
the central security manager. Is incorrect because the central security manager would be responsible for implementing the controls, but it is the auditor that is responsibe for ensuring their effectiveness.

NEW QUESTION 8

Which of the following virus types changes some of its characteristics as it spreads?

  • A. Boot Sector
  • B. Parasitic
  • C. Stealth
  • D. Polymorphic

Answer: D

Explanation:
A Polymorphic virus produces varied but operational copies of itself in hopes of evading anti-virus software.
The following answers are incorrect:
boot sector. Is incorrect because it is not the best answer. A boot sector virus attacks the boot sector of a drive. It describes the type of attack of the virus and not the characteristics of its composition.
parasitic. Is incorrect because it is not the best answer. A parasitic virus attaches itself to other files but does not change its characteristics.
stealth. Is incorrect because it is not the best answer. A stealth virus attempts to hide changes of the affected files but not itself.

NEW QUESTION 9

What security problem is most likely to exist if an operating system permits objects to be used sequentially by multiple users without forcing a refresh of the objects?

  • A. Disclosure of residual data.
  • B. Unauthorized obtaining of a privileged execution state.
  • C. Denial of service through a deadly embrace.
  • D. Data leakage through covert channels.

Answer: A

Explanation:
This question is asking you to consider the effects of object reuse. Object reuse is "reassigning to subject media that previously contained information. Object reuse is a security concern because if insufficient measures were taken to erase the information on the media, the information may be disclosed to unauthorized personnel."
This concept relates to Security Architecture and Design, because it is in level C2: Controlled Access Protection, of the Orange Book, where "The object reuse concept must be invoked, meaning that any medium holding data must not contain any remnants of information after it is release for another subject to use."
REFERENCE:
AIO Version 5 (Shon Harris), page 360 and
TIPTON, Hal, (ISC)2, Introduction to the CISSP Exam presentation.

NEW QUESTION 10

Which of the following is NOT a fundamental component of an alarm in an intrusion detection system?

  • A. Communications
  • B. Enunciator
  • C. Sensor
  • D. Response

Answer: D

Explanation:
Response is the correct choice. A response would essentially be the action that is taken once an alarm has been produced by an IDS, but is not a fundamental component of the alarm.
The following are incorrect answers:
Communications is the component of an alarm that delivers alerts through a variety of channels such as email, pagers, instant messages and so on.
An Enunciator is the component of an alarm that uses business logic to compose the content and format of an alert and determine the recipients of that alert.
A sensor is a fundamental component of IDS alarms. A sensor detects an event and produces an appropriate notification.
Domain: Access Control Reference:
Official guide to the CISSP CBK. page 203.

NEW QUESTION 11

In discretionary access environments, which of the following entities is authorized to grant information access to other people?

  • A. Manager
  • B. Group Leader
  • C. Security Manager
  • D. Data Owner

Answer: D

Explanation:
In Discretionary Access Control (DAC) environments, the user who creates a file is also considered the owner and has full control over the file including the ability to set permissions for that file.
The following answers are incorrect:
manager. Is incorrect because in Discretionary Access Control (DAC) environments it is the owner/user that is authorized to grant information access to other people.
group leader. Is incorrect because in Discretionary Access Control (DAC) environments it is the owner/user that is authorized to grant information access to other people.
security manager. Is incorrect because in Discretionary Access Control (DAC) environments it is the owner/user that is authorized to grant information access to other people.
IMPORTANT NOTE:
The term Data Owner is also used within Classifications as well. Under the subject of classification the Data Owner is a person from management who has been entrusted with a data set that belongs to the company. For example it could be the Chief Financial Officer (CFO) who is entrusted with all of the financial data for a company. As such the CFO would determine the classification of the financial data and who can access as well. The Data Owner would then tell the Data Custodian (a technical person) what the classification and need to know is on the specific set of data.
The term Data Owner under DAC simply means whoever created the file and as the creator of the file the owner has full access and can grant access to other subjects based
on their identity.

NEW QUESTION 12

Which of the following protocol was used by the INITIAL version of the Terminal Access Controller Access Control System TACACS for communication between clients and servers?

  • A. TCP
  • B. SSL
  • C. UDP
  • D. SSH

Answer: C

Explanation:
The original TACACS, developed in the early ARPANet days, had very limited functionality and used the UDP transport. In the early 1990s, the protocol was extended to include additional functionality and the transport changed to TCP.
TACACS is defined in RFC 1492, and uses (either TCP or UDP) port 49 by default. TACACS allows a client to accept a username and password and send a query to a TACACS authentication server, sometimes called a TACACS daemon or simply TACACSD. TACACSD uses TCP and usually runs on port 49. It would determine whether to accept or deny the authentication request and send a response back.
TACACS+
TACACS+ and RADIUS have generally replaced TACACS and XTACACS in more recently built or updated networks. TACACS+ is an entirely new protocol and is not compatible with TACACS or XTACACS. TACACS+ uses the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and RADIUS uses the User Datagram Protocol (UDP). Since TCP is connection oriented
protocol, TACACS+ does not have to implement transmission control. RADIUS, however, does have to detect and correct transmission errors like packet loss, timeout etc. since it rides on UDP which is connectionless.
RADIUS encrypts only the users' password as it travels from the RADIUS client to RADIUS server. All other information such as the username, authorization, accounting are transmitted in clear text. Therefore it is vulnerable to different types of attacks. TACACS+ encrypts all the information mentioned above and therefore does not have the vulnerabilities present in the RADIUS protocol.
RADIUS and TACACS + are client/ server protocols, which means the server portion cannot send unsolicited commands to the client portion. The server portion can only speak when spoken to. Diameter is a peer-based protocol that allows either end to initiate communication. This functionality allows the Diameter server to send a message to the access server to request the user to provide another authentication credential if she is attempting to access a secure resource.
Reference(s) used for this question: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/TACACS
and
Harris, Shon (2012-10-18). CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, 6th Edition (p. 239). McGraw- Hill. Kindle Edition.

NEW QUESTION 13

The International Standards Organization / Open Systems Interconnection (ISO/OSI) Layers does NOT have which of the following characteristics?

  • A. Standard model for network communications
  • B. Used to gain information from network devices such as count of packets received and routing tables
  • C. Enables dissimilar networks to communicate
  • D. Defines 7 protocol layers (a.k.
  • E. protocol stack)

Answer: B

Explanation:
The International Standards Organization / Open Systems Interconnection (ISO/OSI) Layers and Characteristics Standard model for network communications enables dissimilar networks to communicate, Defines 7 protocol layers (a.k.a. protocol stack) Each layer on one workstation communicates with its respective layer on another workstation using protocols (i.e. agreed-upon communication formats) "Mapping" each protocol to the model is useful for comparing protocols.
Mnemonics: Please Do Not Throw Sausage Pizza Away (bottom to top layer) All People Seem To Need Data Processing (top to bottom layer).
Source: STEINER, Kurt, Telecommunications and Network Security, Version 1, May 2002,
CISSP Open Study Group (Domain Leader: skottikus), Page 12.

NEW QUESTION 14

The Telecommunications Security Domain of information security is also concerned with the prevention and detection of the misuse or abuse of systems, which poses a threat to the tenets of:

  • A. Confidentiality, Integrity, and Entity (C.I.E.).
  • B. Confidentiality, Integrity, and Authenticity (C.I.A.).
  • C. Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability (C.I.A.).
  • D. Confidentiality, Integrity, and Liability (C.I.L.).

Answer: C

Explanation:
The CIA acronym stands for Confidentiality, Integrity and Availability.
"Confidentiality, Integrity and Entity (CIE)" is incorrect. "Entity" is not part of the telecommunications domain definition.
"Confidentiality, Integrity and Authenticity (CIA)" is incorrect. While authenticity is included in the telecommunications domain, CIA is the acronym for confidentiality, integrity and availability.
"Confidentiality, Integrity, and Liability (CIL)" is incorrect. Liability is not part of the telecommunications domain definition.
References:
CBK, pp. 407 - 408

NEW QUESTION 15

Which backup method usually resets the archive bit on the files after they have been backed up?

  • A. Incremental backup method.
  • B. Differential backup method.
  • C. Partial backup method.
  • D. Tape backup method.

Answer: A

Explanation:
The incremental backup method usually resets the archive bit on the files after they have been backed up.
An Incremental Backup will backup all the files that have changed since the last Full Backup (the first time it is run after a full backup was previously completed) or after an Incremental Backup (for the second backup and subsequent backups) and sets the archive bit to 0. This type of backup take less time during the backup phase but it will take more time to restore.
The other answers are all incorrect choices. The following backup types also exists:
Full Backup - All data are backed up. The archive bit is cleared, which means that it is set
to 0.
Differential Backup - Backup the files that have been modified since the last Full Backup. The archive bit does not change. Take more time while the backup phase is performed and take less time to restore.
Reference(s) used for this question:
KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 69.

NEW QUESTION 16

What can best be defined as the sum of protection mechanisms inside the computer, including hardware, firmware and software?

  • A. Trusted system
  • B. Security kernel
  • C. Trusted computing base
  • D. Security perimeter

Answer: C

Explanation:
The Trusted Computing Base (TCB) is defined as the total combination of protection mechanisms within a computer system. The TCB includes hardware, software, and firmware. These are part of the TCB because the system is sure that these components will enforce the security policy and not violate it.
The security kernel is made up of hardware, software, and firmware components at fall within the TCB and implements and enforces the reference monitor concept.
Reference:
AIOv4 Security Models and Architecture pgs 268, 273

NEW QUESTION 17

What is the role of IKE within the IPsec protocol?

  • A. peer authentication and key exchange
  • B. data encryption
  • C. data signature
  • D. enforcing quality of service

Answer: A

Explanation:
Reference: RFC 2409: The Internet Key Exchange (IKE); DORASWAMY, Naganand & HARKINS, Dan, Ipsec: The New Security Standard for the Internet, Intranets, and Virtual Private Networks, 1999, Prentice Hall PTR; SMITH, Richard E., Internet Cryptography, 1997, Addison-Wesley Pub Co.

NEW QUESTION 18

Why should batch files and scripts be stored in a protected area?

  • A. Because of the least privilege concept.
  • B. Because they cannot be accessed by operators.
  • C. Because they may contain credentials.
  • D. Because of the need-to-know concept.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Because scripts contain credentials, they must be stored in a protected area and the transmission of the scripts must be dealt with carefully. Operators might need access to batch files and scripts. The least privilege concept requires that each subject in a system be granted the most restrictive set of privileges needed for the performance of authorized tasks. The need-to-know principle requires a user having necessity for access to, knowledge of, or possession of specific information required to perform official tasks or services.
Source: WALLHOFF, John, CISSP Summary 2002, April 2002, CBK#1 Access Control System & Methodology (page 3)

NEW QUESTION 19

What is called an attack where the attacker spoofs the source IP address in an ICMP ECHO broadcast packet so it seems to have originated at the victim's system, in order to flood it with REPLY packets?

  • A. SYN Flood attack
  • B. Smurf attack
  • C. Ping of Death attack
  • D. Denial of Service (DOS) attack

Answer: B

Explanation:
Although it may cause a denial of service to the victim's system, this type of attack is a Smurf attack. A SYN Flood attack uses up all of a system's resources by setting up a number of bogus communication sockets on the victim's system. A Ping of Death attack is done by sending IP packets that exceed the maximum legal length (65535 octets). Source: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw- Hill/Osborne, 2002, chapter 11: Application and System Development (page 789).

NEW QUESTION 20

Which of the following should be emphasized during the Business Impact Analysis (BIA) considering that the BIA focus is on business processes?

  • A. Composition
  • B. Priorities
  • C. Dependencies
  • D. Service levels

Answer: C

Explanation:
The Business Impact Analysis (BIA) identifies time-critical aspects of the critical business processes, and determines their maximum tolerable downtime. The BIA helps to Identify organization functions, the capabilities of each organization unit to handle outages, and the priority and sequence of functions and applications to be recovered, identify resources required for recovery of those areas and interdependencies
In performing the Business Impact Analysis (BIA) it is very important to consider what the dependencies are. You cannot bring a system up if it depends on another system to be operational. You need to look at not only internal dependencies but external as well. You might not be able to get the raw materials for your business so dependencies are very important aspect of a BIA.
The BIA committee will not truly understand all business processes, the steps that must take place, or the resources and supplies these processes require. So the committee must gather this information from the people who do know?? department managers and specific employees throughout the organization. The committee starts by identifying the people who will be part of the BIA data-gathering sessions. The committee needs to identify how it will collect the data from the selected employees, be it through surveys, interviews, or workshops. Next, the team needs to collect the information by actually conducting surveys, interviews, and workshops. Data points obtained as part of the information gathering will be used later during analysis. It is important that the team members ask about how different tasks?? whether processes, transactions, or services, along with any relevant
dependencies?? get accomplished within the organization.
The following answers are incorrect:
composition This is incorrect because it is not the best answer. While the make up of business may be important, if you have not determined the dependencies first you may not be able to bring the critical business processes to a ready state or have the materials on hand that are needed.
priorities This is incorrect because it is not the best answer. While the priorities of processes are important, if you have not determined the dependencies first you may not be able to bring the critical business processes to a ready state or have the materials on hand that are needed.
service levels This is incorrect because it is not the best answer. Service levels are not as important as dependencies.
Reference(s) used for this question:
Schneiter, Andrew (2013-04-15). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition : Business Continuity and Disaster Recovery Planning (Kindle Locations 188-191). . Kindle Edition.
and
Harris, Shon (2012-10-25). CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, 6th Edition (Kindle Locations 18562-18568). McGraw-Hill. Kindle Edition.

NEW QUESTION 21

What attack involves the perpetrator sending spoofed packet(s) wich contains the same destination and source IP address as the remote host, the same port for the source and destination, having the SYN flag, and targeting any open ports that are open on the remote host?

  • A. Boink attack
  • B. Land attack
  • C. Teardrop attack
  • D. Smurf attack

Answer: B

Explanation:
The Land attack involves the perpetrator sending spoofed packet(s) with the SYN flag set to the victim's machine on any open port that is listening. The packet(s) contain the same destination and source IP address as the host, causing the victim's machine to reply to itself repeatedly. In addition, most systems experience a total freeze up, where as CTRL-ALT-DELETE fails to work, the mouse and keyboard become non operational and the only method of correction is to reboot via a reset button on the system or by turning the machine off.
The Boink attack, a modified version of the original Teardrop and Bonk exploit programs, is very similar to the Bonk attack, in that it involves the perpetrator sending corrupt UDP packets to the host. It however allows the attacker to attack multiple ports where Bonk was mainly directed to port 53 (DNS).
The Teardrop attack involves the perpetrator sending overlapping packets to the victim, when their machine attempts to re-construct the packets the victim's machine hangs.
A Smurf attack is a network-level attack against hosts where a perpetrator sends a large amount of ICMP echo (ping) traffic at broadcast addresses, all of it having a spoofed source address of a victim. If the routing device delivering traffic to those broadcast addresses performs the IP broadcast to layer 2 broadcast function, most hosts on that IP network will take the ICMP echo request and reply to it with an echo reply each, multiplying the traffic by the number of hosts responding. On a multi-access broadcast network, there could potentially be hundreds of machines to reply to each packet.
Resources:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Denial-of-service_attack http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/LAND

NEW QUESTION 22

Examples of types of physical access controls include all EXCEPT which of the following?

  • A. badges
  • B. locks
  • C. guards
  • D. passwords

Answer: D

Explanation:
Passwords are considered a Preventive/Technical (logical) control. The following answers are incorrect:
badges Badges are a physical control used to identify an individual. A badge can include a smart device which can be used for authentication and thus a Technical control, but the actual badge itself is primarily a physical control.
locks Locks are a Preventative Physical control and has no Technical association. guards Guards are a Preventative Physical control and has no Technical association.
The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 2: Access control systems (page 35).

NEW QUESTION 23

The IP header contains a protocol field. If this field contains the value of 51, what type of data is contained within the ip datagram?

  • A. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
  • B. Authentication Header (AH)
  • C. User datagram protocol (UDP)
  • D. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)

Answer: B

Explanation:
TCP has the value of 6 UDP has the value of 17
ICMP has the value of 1
Reference:
SANS http://www.sans.org/resources/tcpip.pdf?ref=3871

NEW QUESTION 24

What key size is used by the Clipper Chip?

  • A. 40 bits
  • B. 56 bits
  • C. 64 bits
  • D. 80 bits

Answer: D

Explanation:
The Clipper Chip is a NSA designed tamperproof chip for encrypting data and it uses the SkipJack algorithm. Each Clipper Chip has a unique serial number and a copy of the unit key is stored in the database under this serial number. The sending Clipper Chip generates and sends a Law Enforcement Access Field (LEAF) value included in the transmitted message. It is based on a 80-bit key and a 16-bit checksum.
Source: WALLHOFF, John, CBK#5 Cryptography (CISSP Study Guide), April 2002 (page 1).

NEW QUESTION 25

Which of the following is defined as an Internet, IPsec, key-establishment protocol, partly based on OAKLEY, that is intended for putting in place authenticated keying material for use with ISAKMP and for other security associations?

  • A. Internet Key exchange (IKE)
  • B. Security Association Authentication Protocol (SAAP)
  • C. Simple Key-management for Internet Protocols (SKIP)
  • D. Key Exchange Algorithm (KEA)

Answer: A

Explanation:
RFC 2828 (Internet Security Glossary) defines IKE as an Internet, IPsec, key-establishment protocol (partly based on OAKLEY) that is intended for putting in place authenticated keying material for use with ISAKMP and for other security associations, such as in AH and ESP.
The following are incorrect answers:
SKIP is a key distribution protocol that uses hybrid encryption to convey session keys that are used to encrypt data in IP packets.
The Key Exchange Algorithm (KEA) is defined as a key agreement algorithm that is similar to the Diffie-Hellman algorithm, uses 1024-bit asymmetric keys, and was developed and formerly classified at the secret level by the NSA.
Security Association Authentication Protocol (SAAP) is a distracter. Reference(s) used for this question:
SHIREY, Robert W., RFC2828: Internet Security Glossary, may 2000.

NEW QUESTION 26
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