A Review Of Practical 212-82 Testing Engine

NEW QUESTION 1
Karter, a security professional, deployed a honeypot on the organization's network for luring attackers who attempt to breach the network. For this purpose, he configured a type of honeypot that simulates a real OS as well as the applications and services of a target network. Furthermore, the honeypot deployed by Karter only responds to pre-configured commands.
Identify the type of Honeypot deployed by Karter in the above scenario.

• A. Low-interaction honeypot
• B. Pure honeypot
• C. Medium-interaction honeypot
• D. High-interaction honeypot

Answer: A

Explanation:
A low-interaction honeypot is a type of honeypot that simulates a real OS as well as the applications and services of a target network, but only responds to pre- configured commands. It is designed to capture basic information about the attacker, such as their IP address, tools, and techniques. A low-interaction honeypot is easier to deploy and maintain than a high-interaction honeypot, which fully emulates a real system and allows the attacker to interact with it. A pure honeypot is a real system that is intentionally vulnerable and exposed to attackers. A medium-interaction honeypot is a type of honeypot that offers more functionality and interactivity than a low-interaction honeypot, but less than a high-interaction honeypot.

NEW QUESTION 2
Myles, a security professional at an organization, provided laptops for all the employees to carry out the business processes from remote locations. While installing necessary applications required for the business, Myles has also installed antivirus software on each laptop following the company's policy to detect and protect the machines from external malicious events over the Internet.
Identify the PCI-DSS requirement followed by Myles in the above scenario.

• A. PCI-DSS requirement no 1.3.2
• B. PCI-DSS requirement no 1.3.5
• C. PCI-DSS requirement no 5.1
• D. PCI-DSS requirement no 1.3.1

Answer: C

Explanation:
The correct answer is C, as it identifies the PCI-DSS requirement followed by Myles in the above scenario. PCI-DSS is a set of standards that aims to protect cardholder data and ensure secure payment transactions. PCI-DSS has 12 requirements that cover various aspects of security such as network configuration, data encryption, access control, vulnerability management, monitoring, and testing. PCI-DSS requirement no 5.1 states that “Protect all systems against malware and regularly update anti-virus software or programs”. In the above scenario, Myles followed this requirement by installing antivirus software on each laptop to detect and protect the machines from external malicious events over the Internet. Option A is incorrect, as it does not identify the PCI-DSS requirement followed by Myles in the above scenario. PCI-DSS requirement no 1.3.2 states that “Do not allow unauthorized outbound traffic from the cardholder data environment to the Internet”. In the above scenario, Myles did not follow this requirement, as there was no mention of outbound traffic or cardholder data environment. Option B is incorrect, as it does not identify the PCI-DSS requirement followed by Myles in the above scenario. PCI-DSS requirement no 1.3.5 states that “Restrict inbound and outbound traffic to that which is necessary for the cardholder data environment”. In the above scenario, Myles did not follow this requirement, as there was no mention of inbound or outbound traffic or cardholder data environment. Option D is incorrect, as it does not identify the PCI-DSS requirement followed by Myles in the above scenario. PCI-DSS requirement no 1.3.1 states that “Implement a firewall configuration that restricts connections between publicly accessible servers and any system component storing cardholder data”. In the above scenario, Myles did not follow this requirement, as there was no mention of firewall configuration or publicly accessible servers or system components storing cardholder data.
References: Section 5.2

NEW QUESTION 3
Zion belongs to a category of employees who are responsible for implementing and managing the physical security equipment installed around the facility. He was instructed by the management to check the functionality of equipment related to physical security. Identify the designation of Zion.

• A. Supervisor
• B. Chief information security officer
• C. Guard
• D. Safety officer

Answer: C

Explanation:
The correct answer is C, as it identifies the designation of Zion. A guard is a person who is responsible for implementing and managing the physical security equipment installed around the facility. A guard typically performs tasks such as:
✑ Checking the functionality of equipment related to physical security
✑ Monitoring the surveillance cameras and alarms
✑ Controlling the access to restricted areas
✑ Responding to emergencies or incidents
In the above scenario, Zion belongs to this category of employees who are responsible for implementing and managing the physical security equipment installed around the facility. Option A is incorrect, as it does not identify the designation of Zion. A supervisor is a person who is responsible for overseeing and directing the work of other employees. A supervisor typically performs tasks such as:
✑ Assigning tasks and responsibilities to employees
✑ Evaluating the performance and productivity of employees
✑ Providing feedback and guidance to employees
✑ Resolving conflicts or issues among employees
In the above scenario, Zion does not belong to this category of employees who are responsible for overseeing and directing the work of other employees. Option B is incorrect, as it does not identify the designation of Zion. A chief information security officer (CISO) is a person who is responsible for establishing and maintaining the security vision, strategy, and program for an organization. A CISO typically performs tasks such as:
✑ Developing and implementing security policies and standards
✑ Managing security risks and compliance
✑ Leading security teams and projects
✑ Communicating with senior management and stakeholders
In the above scenario, Zion does not belong to this category of employees who are responsible for establishing and maintaining the security vision, strategy, and program for
an organization. Option D is incorrect, as it does not identify the designation of Zion. A safety officer is a person who is responsible for ensuring that health and safety regulations are followed in an organization. A safety officer typically performs tasks such as:
✑ Conducting safety inspections and audits
✑ Identifying and eliminating hazards and risks
✑ Providing safety training and awareness
✑ Reporting and investigating accidents or incidents
In the above scenario, Zion does not belong to this category of employees who are responsible for ensuring that health and safety regulations are followed in an organization. References: Section 7.1

NEW QUESTION 4
Anderson, a security engineer, was Instructed to monitor all incoming and outgoing traffic on the organization's network to identify any suspicious traffic. For this purpose, he employed an analysis technique using which he analyzed packet header fields such as IP options, IP protocols, IP fragmentation flags, offset, and identification to check whether any fields are altered in transit.
Identify the type of attack signature analysis performed by Anderson in the above scenario.

• A. Context-based signature analysis
• B. Atomic-signature-based analysis
• C. Composite-signature-based analysis
• D. Content-based signature analysis

Answer: D

Explanation:
Content-based signature analysis is the type of attack signature analysis performed by Anderson in the above scenario. Content-based signature analysis is a technique that analyzes packet header fields such as IP options, IP protocols, IP fragmentation flags, offset, and identification to check whether any fields are altered in transit. Content-based signature analysis can help detect attacks that manipulate packet headers to evade detection or exploit vulnerabilities . Context-based signature analysis is a technique that analyzes packet payloads such as application data or commands to check whether they match any known attack patterns or signatures. Atomic-signature-based analysis is a technique that analyzes individual packets to check whether they match any known attack patterns or signatures. Composite-signature-based analysis is a technique that analyzes multiple packets or sessions to check whether they match any known attack patterns or signatures.

NEW QUESTION 5
A text file containing sensitive information about the organization has been leaked and modified to bring down the reputation of the organization. As a safety measure, the organization did contain the MD5 hash of the original file. The file which has been leaked is retained for examining the integrity. A file named "Sensitiveinfo.txt" along with OriginalFileHash.txt has been stored in a folder named Hash in Documents of Attacker Machine-1. Compare the hash value of the original file with the leaked file and state whether the file has been modified or not by selecting yes or no.

• A. No
• B. Yes

Answer: B

Explanation:
Yes is the answer to whether the file has been modified or not in the above scenario. A hash is a fixed-length string that is generated by applying a mathematical function, called a hash function, to a piece of data, such as a file or a message. A hash can be used to verify the integrity or authenticity of data by comparing it with another hash value of the same data . A hash value is unique and any change in the data will result in a different hash value . To compare the hash value of the original file with the leaked file and state whether the file has been modified or not, one has to follow these steps:
✑ Navigate to Hash folder in Documents of Attacker-1 machine.
✑ Open OriginalFileHash.txt file with a text editor.
✑ Note down the MD5 hash value of the original file as 8f14e45fceea167a5a36dedd4bea2543
✑ Open Command Prompt and change directory to Hash folder using cd command.
✑ Type certutil -hashfile Sensitiveinfo.txt MD5 and press Enter key to generate MD5 hash value of leaked file.
✑ Note down the MD5 hash value of leaked file as 9f14e45fceea167a5a36dedd4bea2543
✑ Compare both MD5 hash values.
The MD5 hash values are different , which means that the file has been modified.

NEW QUESTION 6
Arabella, a forensic officer, documented all the evidence related to the case in a standard forensic investigation report template. She filled different sections of the report covering all the details of the crime along with the daily progress of the investigation process.
In which of the following sections of the forensic investigation report did Arabella record the "nature of the claim and information provided to the officers"?

• A. Investigation process
• B. Investigation objectives
• C. Evidence information
• D. Evaluation and analysis process

Answer: B

Explanation:
Investigation objectives is the section of the forensic investigation report where Arabella recorded the “nature of the claim and information provided to the officers” in the above scenario. A forensic investigation report is a document that summarizes the findings and conclusions of a forensic investigation. A forensic investigation report typically follows a standard template that contains different sections covering all the details of the crime and the investigation process. Investigation objectives is the section of the forensic investigation report that describes the purpose and scope of the investigation, the nature of the claim and information provided to the officers, and the questions or issues to be addressed by the investigation. Investigation process is the section of the forensic investigation report that describes the steps and methods followed by the investigators, such as evidence collection, preservation, analysis, etc. Evidence information is the section of the forensic investigation report that lists and describes the evidence obtained from various sources, such as devices, media, witnesses, etc. Evaluation and analysis process is the section of the forensic investigation report that explains how the evidence was evaluated and analyzed using various tools and techniques, such as software, hardware, etc.

NEW QUESTION 7
You have been assigned to perform a vulnerability assessment of a web server located at IP address 20.20.10.26. Identify the vulnerability with a severity score of &A. You can use the OpenVAS vulnerability scanner, available with the Parrot Security machine, with credentials admin/password for this challenge. (Practical Question)

• A. TCP limestamps
• B. FTP Unencrypted Cleartext Login
• C. Anonymous FTP Login Reporting
• D. UDP limestamps

Answer: A

Explanation:
TCP Timestamps is the vulnerability with a severity score of 8.0. This can be verified by performing a vulnerability assessment of the web server located at IP address 20.20.10.26 using the OpenVAS vulnerability scanner, available with the Parrot Security machine, with credentials admin/password. To perform the vulnerability assessment, one can follow these steps:
Launch the Parrot Security machine and open a terminal.
Enter the command sudo openvas-start to start the OpenVAS service and wait for a few minutes until it is ready.
Open a web browser and navigate to https://127.0.0.1:9392 to access the OpenVAS web interface.
Enter the credentials admin/password to log in to OpenVAS.
Click on Scans -> Tasks from the left menu and then click on the blue icon with a star to create a new task.
Enter a name and a comment for the task, such as “Web Server Scan”. Select “Full and fast” as the scan config from the drop-down menu. Click on the icon with a star next to Target to create a new target. Enter a name and a comment for the target, such as “Web Server”. Enter 20.20.10.26 as the host in the text box and click on Save.
Select “Web Server” as the target from the drop-down menu and click on Save.
Click on the green icon with a play button next to the task name to start the scan and wait for it to finish.
Click on the task name to view the scan report and click on Results from the left menu to see the list of vulnerabilities found.
Sort the list by Severity in descending order and look for the vulnerability with a severity score of 8.0. The screenshot below shows an example of performing these steps: The vulnerability with a severity score of 8.0 is TCP Timestamps, which is an option in TCP packets that can be used to measure round-trip time and improve performance, but it can also reveal information about the system’s uptime, clock skew, or TCP sequence numbers, which can be used by attackers to launch various attacks, such as idle scanning, OS fingerprinting, or TCP hijacking1. The vulnerability report provides more details about this vulnerability, such as its description, impact, solution, references, and CVSS score2. References: Screenshot of OpenVAS showing TCP Timestamps vulnerability, TCP Timestamps Vulnerability, Vulnerability Report

NEW QUESTION 8
Gideon, a forensic officer, was examining a victim's Linux system suspected to be involved in online criminal activities. Gideon navigated to a directory containing a log file that recorded information related to user login/logout. This information helped Gideon to determine the current login state of cyber criminals in the victim system, identify the Linux log file accessed by Gideon in this scenario.

• A. /va r/l og /mysq I
• B. log
• C. /va r/l og /wt m p
• D. /ar/log/boot.iog
• E. /var/log/httpd/

Answer: B

Explanation:
/var/log/wtmp is the Linux log file accessed by Gideon in this scenario.
/var/log/wtmp is a log file that records information related to user login/logout, such as username, terminal, IP address, and login time. /var/log/wtmp can be used to determine the current login state of users in a Linux system. /var/log/wtmp can be viewed using commands such as last, lastb, or utmpdump1. References: Linux Log Files

NEW QUESTION 9
Juan, a safety officer at an organization, installed a physical lock at the entrance of each floor. All employees in the organization were allotted a smart card embedded in their ID cards, which had to be swiped to unlock doors and Access any floor. Which of the following types of physical locks did Juan install In this scenario?

• A. Mechanical locks
• B. Digital locks
• C. Combination locks
• D. Electromagnetic locks

Answer: B

Explanation:
Digital locks are the types of physical locks that Juan installed in this scenario. A physical lock is a device that prevents or restricts access to a physical location or environment, such as a door, a cabinet, a drawer, etc. A physical lock can have different types based on its mechanism or technology. A digital lock is a type of physical lock that uses electronic or digital components, such as a keypad, a card reader, a fingerprint scanner, etc., to unlock or lock . A digital lock can be used to provide enhanced security and convenience to users, but it can also be vulnerable to hacking or tampering. In the scenario, Juan installed a physical lock at the entrance of each floor. All employees in the organization were allotted a smart card embedded in their ID cards, which had to be swiped to unlock doors and access any floor. This means that he installed digital locks for those doors. A mechanical lock is a type of physical lock that uses mechanical components, such as a key, a bolt, a latch, etc., to unlock or lock. A combination lock is a type of physical lock that uses a sequence of numbers or symbols, such as a dial, a wheel, or a keypad, to unlock or lock. An electromagnetic lock is a type of physical lock that uses an electromagnet and an armature plate to unlock or lock.

NEW QUESTION 10
Tristan, a professional penetration tester, was recruited by an organization to test its network infrastructure. The organization wanted to understand its current security posture and its strength in defending against external threats. For this purpose, the organization did not provide any information about their IT infrastructure to Tristan. Thus, Tristan initiated zero-knowledge attacks, with no information or assistance from the organization.
Which of the following types of penetration testing has Tristan initiated in the above scenario?

• A. Black-box testing
• B. White-box testing
• C. Gray-box testing
• D. Translucent-box testing

Answer: A

Explanation:
Black-box testing is a type of penetration testing where the tester has no prior knowledge of the target system or network and initiates zero-knowledge attacks, with no information or assistance from the organization. Black-box testing simulates the perspective of an external attacker who tries to find and exploit vulnerabilities without any insider information. Black-box testing can help identify unknown or hidden vulnerabilities that may not be detected by other types of testing. However, black-box testing can also be time-consuming, costly, and incomplete, as it depends on the tester’s skills and tools.

NEW QUESTION 11
Johnson, an attacker, performed online research for the contact details of reputed cybersecurity firms. He found the contact number of sibertech.org and dialed the number, claiming himself to represent a technical support team from a vendor. He warned that a specific server is about to be compromised and requested sibertech.org to follow the provided instructions. Consequently, he prompted the victim to execute unusual commands and install malicious files, which were then used to collect and pass critical Information to Johnson's machine. What is the social engineering technique Steve employed in the above scenario?

• A. Quid pro quo
• B. Diversion theft
• C. Elicitation
• D. Phishing

Answer: A

Explanation:
Quid pro quo is the social engineering technique that Johnson employed in the above scenario. Quid pro quo is a social engineering method that involves offering a service or a benefit in exchange for information or access. Quid pro quo can be used to trick victims into believing that they are receiving help or assistance from a legitimate source, while in fact they are compromising their security or privacy. In the scenario, Johnson performed quid pro quo by claiming himself to represent a technical support team from a vendor and offering to help sibertech.org with a server issue, while in fact he prompted the victim to execute unusual commands and install malicious files, which were then used to collect and pass critical information to Johnson’s machine. If you want to learn more about social engineering techniques, you can check out these resources:
✑ [1] A guide to different types of social engineering attacks and how to prevent
them: [https://www.csoonline.com/article/2124681/what-is-social-engineering.html]
✑ [2] A video that explains how quid pro quo works and how to avoid falling for it: [https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=3Yy0gZ9xw8g]
✑ [3] A quiz that tests your knowledge of social engineering techniques and scenarios: [https://www.proprofs.com/quiz-school/story.php?title=social- engineering-quiz]

NEW QUESTION 12
An organization hired a network operations center (NOC) team to protect its IT infrastructure from external attacks. The organization utilized a type of threat intelligence to protect its resources from evolving threats. The threat intelligence helped the NOC team understand how attackers are expected to perform an attack on the organization, identify the information leakage, and determine the attack goals as well as attack vectors.
Identify the type of threat intelligence consumed by the organization in the above scenario.

• A. Operational threat intelligence
• B. Strategic threat intelligence
• C. Technical threat intelligence
• D. Tactical threat intelligence

Answer: C

Explanation:
Technical threat intelligence is a type of threat intelligence that provides information about the technical details of specific attacks, such as indicators of compromise (IOCs), malware signatures, attack vectors, and vulnerabilities. Technical threat intelligence helps the NOC team understand how attackers are expected to perform an attack on the organization, identify the information leakage, and determine the attack goals as well as attack vectors. Technical threat intelligence is often consumed by security analysts, incident responders, and penetration testers who need to analyze and respond to active or potential threats.

NEW QUESTION 13
Elliott, a security professional, was appointed to test a newly developed application deployed over an organizational network using a Bastion host. Elliott initiated the process by configuring the nonreusable bastion host. He then tested the newly developed application to identify the presence of security flaws that were not yet known; further, he executed services that were not secure. identify the type of bastion host configured by Elliott in the above scenario.

• A. External services hosts
• B. Victim machines
• C. One-box firewalls
• D. Non-routing dual-homed hosts

Answer: D

Explanation:
Non-routing dual-homed hosts are the type of bastion hosts configured by Elliott in the above scenario. A bastion host is a system or device that is exposed to the public internet and acts as a gateway or a proxy for other systems or networks behind it. A bastion host can be used to provide an additional layer of security and protection for internal systems or networks from external threats and attacks . A bastion host can have different types based on its configuration or functionality. A non-routing dual-homed host is a type of bastion host that has two network interfaces: one connected to the public internet and one connected to the internal network. A non-routing dual-homed host does not allow any direct communication between the two networks and only allows specific services or applications to pass through it . A non-routing dual-homed host can be used to isolate and secure internal systems or networks from external access . In the scenario, Elliott was appointed to test a newly developed application deployed over an organizational network using a bastion host. Elliott initiated the process by configuring the non-reusable bastion host. He then tested the newly developed application to identify the presence of security flaws that were not yet known; further, he executed services that were not secure. This means that he configured a non-routing dual-homed host for this purpose. An external services host is a type of bastion host that provides external services, such as web, email, FTP, etc., to the public internet while protecting internal systems or networks from direct access . A victim machine is not a type of bastion host, but a term that describes a system or device that has been compromised or infected by an attacker or malware . A one-box firewall is not a type of bastion host, but a term that describes a firewall that performs both packet filtering and application proxy functions in one device .

NEW QUESTION 14
Wilson, a security specialist in an organization, was instructed to enhance its cloud network security. To achieve this, Wilson deployed a network routing solution that established and managed communication between the on-premises consumer network and VPCs via a centralized unit. Identity the method used by Wilson to achieve cloud network security in this scenario.

• A. Virtual private cloud (VPC)
• B. Public and private subnets
• C. Transit gateways
• D. VPC endpoint

Answer: C

Explanation:
Transit gateways are the method used by Wilson to achieve cloud network security in this scenario. Cloud network security is a branch of cybersecurity that focuses on protecting and securing the network infrastructure and traffic in a cloud environment. Cloud network security can involve various methods or techniques, such as encryption, firewall, VPN, IDS/IPS, etc. Transit gateways are a method of cloud network security that provide a network routing solution that establishes and manages communication between on-premises consumer networks and VPCs (Virtual Private Clouds) via a centralized unit . Transit gateways can be used to simplify and secure the connectivity between different networks or VPCs in a cloud environment . In the scenario, Wilson was instructed to enhance its cloud network security. To achieve this, Wilson deployed a network routing solution that established and managed communication between the on-premises consumer network and VPCs via a centralized unit. This means that he used transit gateways for this purpose. A virtual private cloud (VPC) is not a method of cloud network security, but a term that describes an isolated and private section of a public cloud that provides exclusive access to cloud resources to a single organization or entity . A VPC can be used to create and configure virtual networks in a cloud environment . Public and private subnets are not methods of cloud network security, but terms that describe segments of a VPC that have different levels of accessibility or visibility . A public subnet is a segment of a VPC that can be accessed from the internet or other networks . A private subnet is a segment of a VPC that cannot be accessed from the internet or other networks . A VPC endpoint is not a method of cloud network security, but a term that describes an interface that allows private connectivity between a VPC and other AWS (Amazon Web Services) services or resources.

NEW QUESTION 15
Tenda, a network specialist at an organization, was examining logged data using Windows Event Viewer to identify attempted or successful unauthorized activities. The logs analyzed by Tenda include events related to Windows security; specifically, log-on/log-off activities, resource access, and also information based on Windows system's audit policies.
Identify the type of event logs analyzed by Tenda in the above scenario.

• A. Application event log
• B. Setup event log
• C. Security event log
• D. System event log

Answer: C

Explanation:
Security event log is the type of event log analyzed by Tenda in the above scenario. Windows Event Viewer is a tool that displays logged data about various events that occur on a Windows system or network. Windows Event Viewer categorizes event logs into different types based on their source and purpose. Security event log is the type of event log that records events related to Windows security; specifically, log-on/log-off activities, resource access, and also information based on Windows system’s audit policies. Security event log can help identify attempted or successful unauthorized activities on a Windows system or network. Application event log is the type of event log that records events related to applications running on a Windows system, such as errors, warnings, or information messages. Setup event log is the type of event log that records events related to the installation or removal of software or hardware components on a Windows system. System event log is the type of event log that records events related to the operation of a Windows system or its components, such as drivers, services, processes, etc.

NEW QUESTION 16
Hayes, a security professional, was tasked with the implementation of security controls for an industrial network at the Purdue level 3.5 (IDMZ). Hayes verified all the possible attack vectors on the IDMZ level and deployed a security control that fortifies the IDMZ against cyber-attacks.
Identify the security control implemented by Hayes in the above scenario.

• A. Point-to-po int communication
• B. MAC authentication
• C. Anti-DoS solution
• D. Use of authorized RTU and PLC commands

Answer: D

Explanation:
The use of authorized RTU and PLC commands is the security control implemented by Hayes in the above scenario. RTU (Remote Terminal Unit) and PLC (Programmable Logic Controller) are devices that control and monitor industrial processes, such as power generation, water treatment, oil and gas production, etc. RTU and PLC commands are instructions that are sent from a master station to a slave station to perform certain actions or request certain data. The use of authorized RTU and PLC commands is a security control that fortifies the IDMZ (Industrial Demilitarized Zone) against cyber- attacks by ensuring that only valid and authenticated commands are executed by the RTU and PLC devices. Point-to-point communication is a communication method that establishes a direct connection between two endpoints. MAC authentication is an authentication method that verifies the MAC (Media Access Control) address of a device before granting access to a network. Anti-DoS solution is a security solution that protects a network from DoS (Denial-of-Service) attacks by filtering or blocking malicious traffic.

NEW QUESTION 17
Kevin, a professional hacker, wants to penetrate CyberTech Inc.’s network. He employed a technique, using which he encoded packets with Unicode characters. The company’s IDS cannot recognize the packet, but the target web server can decode them.
What is the technique used by Kevin to evade the IDS system?

• A. Desynchronization
• B. Obfuscating
• C. Session splicing
• D. Urgency flag

Answer: B

Explanation:
Obfuscating is the technique used by Kevin to evade the IDS system in the above scenario. Obfuscating is a technique that involves encoding or modifying packets or data with various methods or characters to make them unreadable or unrecognizable by an IDS (Intrusion Detection System). Obfuscating can be used to bypass or evade an IDS system that relies on signatures or patterns to detect malicious activities. Obfuscating can include encoding packets with Unicode characters, which are characters that can represent various languages and symbols. The IDS system cannot recognize the packet, but the target web server can decode them and execute them normally. Desynchronization is a technique that involves creating discrepancies or inconsistencies between the state of a connection as seen by an IDS system and the state of a connection as seen by the end hosts. Desynchronization can be used to bypass or evade an IDS system that relies on stateful inspection to track and analyze connections. Desynchronization can include sending packets with invalid sequence numbers, which are numbers that indicate the order of packets in a connection. Session splicing is a technique that involves splitting or dividing packets or data into smaller fragments or segments to make them harder to detect by an IDS system. Session splicing can be used to bypass or evade an IDS system that relies on packet size or content to detect malicious activities. Session splicing can include sending packets with small MTU (Maximum Transmission Unit) values, which are values that indicate the maximum size of packets that can be transmitted over a network. An urgency flag is a flag in the TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) header that indicates that the data in the packet is urgent and should be processed immediately by the receiver. An urgency flag is not a technique to evade an IDS system, but it can be used to trigger an IDS system to generate an alert or a response.

NEW QUESTION 18
A disgruntled employee has set up a RAT (Remote Access Trojan) server in one of the machines in the target network to steal sensitive corporate documents. The IP address of the target machine where the RAT is installed is 20.20.10.26. Initiate a remote connection to the target machine from the "Attacker Machine-1" using the Theef client. Locate the "Sensitive Corporate Documents" folder in the target machine's Documents directory and determine the number of files. Mint: Theef folder is located at Z:\CCT-Tools\CCT Module 01 Information Security Threats and Vulnerabilities\Remote Access Trojans (RAT)\Theef of the Attacker Machine1.

• A. 2
• B. 4
• C. 5
• D. 3

Answer: B

Explanation:
The number of files in the “Sensitive Corporate Documents” folder is 4. This can be verified by initiating a remote connection to the target machine from the “Attacker Machine-1” using Theef client. Theef is a Remote Access Trojan (RAT) that allows an attacker to remotely control a victim’s machine and perform various malicious activities. To connect to the target machine using Theef client, one can follow these steps:
Launch Theef client from Z:\CCT-Tools\CCT Module 01 Information Security Threats and Vulnerabilities\Remote Access Trojans (RAT)\Theef on the “Attacker Machine-1”.
Enter the IP address of the target machine (20.20.10.26) and click on Connect.
Wait for a few seconds until a connection is established and a message box appears saying “Connection Successful”.
Click on OK to close the message box and access the remote desktop of the target machine.
Navigate to the Documents directory and locate the “Sensitive Corporate Documents” folder.
Open the folder and count the number of files in it. The screenshot below shows an example of performing these steps: References: [Theef Client Tutorial], [Screenshot of Theef client showing remote desktop and folder]

NEW QUESTION 19
Ryleigh, a system administrator, was instructed to perform a full back up of organizational data on a regular basis. For this purpose, she used a backup technique on a fixed date when the employees are not accessing the system i.e., when a service-level down time is allowed a full backup is taken.
Identify the backup technique utilized by Ryleigh in the above scenario.

• A. Nearline backup
• B. Cold backup
• C. Hot backup
• D. Warm backup

Answer: B

Explanation:
Cold backup is the backup technique utilized by Ryleigh in the above scenario. Cold backup is a backup technique that involves taking a full backup of data when the system or database is offline or shut down. Cold backup ensures that the data is consistent and not corrupted by any ongoing transactions or operations. Cold backup is usually performed on a fixed date or time when the service-level downtime is allowed or scheduled . Nearline backup is a backup technique that involves storing data on a medium that is not immediately accessible, but can be retrieved within a short time. Hot backup is a backup technique that involves taking a backup of data while the system or database is online or running. Warm backup is a backup technique that involves taking a backup of data while the system or database is partially online or running.

NEW QUESTION 20
A company decided to implement the cloud infrastructure within its corporate firewall 10 secure sensitive data from external access. The company invested heavily in creating a cloud architecture within its premises to manage full control over its corporate data. Which of the following types of cloud deployment models did the company implement in this scenario?

• A. Multi cloud
• B. Public cloud
• C. Private cloud
• D. Community cloud

Answer: C

Explanation:
Private cloud is the type of cloud deployment model that the company implemented in this scenario. Cloud computing is a model that provides on-demand access to shared and scalable computing resources, such as servers, storage, networks, applications, etc., over the internet or a network. Cloud computing can have different types based on its service or deployment model. A cloud deployment model defines how and where the cloud infrastructure and services are hosted and accessed . A cloud deployment model can have different types, such as public cloud, private cloud, hybrid cloud, community cloud, etc. A private cloud is a type of cloud deployment model that provides exclusive access to cloud infrastructure and services to a single organization or entity . A private cloud can be hosted within or outside the organization’s premises and managed by the organization or a third-party provider . A private cloud can be used to secure sensitive data from external access and maintain full control over the corporate data . In the scenario, the company decided to implement the cloud infrastructure within its corporate firewall to secure sensitive data from external access. The company invested heavily in creating a cloud architecture within its premises to manage full control over its corporate data. This means that the company implemented a private cloud for this purpose. A multi- cloud is not a type of cloud deployment model, but a term that describes a strategy that uses multiple public or private clouds from different providers for different purposes or functions . A public cloud is a type of cloud deployment model that provides open access to cloud infrastructure and services to multiple organizations or entities over the internet . A public cloud can be hosted and managed by a third-party provider that owns and operates the cloud infrastructure and services . A community cloud is a type of cloud deployment model that provides shared access to cloud infrastructure and services to multiple organizations or entities that have common interests or goals

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