What Simulation CV0-003 Samples Is

NEW QUESTION 1

A piece of software applies licensing fees on a socket-based model. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when attempting to calculate the licensing costs for this software?

• A. The amount of memory in the server
• B. The number of CPUs in the server
• C. The type of cloud in which the software is deployed
• D. The number of customers who will be using the software

Answer: B

Explanation:
The most important consideration when attempting to calculate the licensing costs for a piece of software that applies licensing fees on a socket-based model is the number of CPUs in the server. A socket-based model is a type of licensing model that charges based on the number of physical CPU sockets or slots on the server, regardless of how many cores or threads each CPU has. The systems administrator should count how many CPUs are installed on each server and multiply that by the licensing fee per socket to determine the total licensing cost for the software. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3.0 Maintenance, Objective 3.3 Given a scenario, analyze system performance using standard tools.

NEW QUESTION 2

A company is planning to migrate applications to a public cloud, and the Chief Information Officer (CIO) would like to know the cost per business unit for the applications in the cloud. Before the migration, which of the following should the administrator implement FIRST to assist with reporting the cost for each business unit?

• A. An SLA report
• B. Tagging
• C. Quotas
• D. Showback

Answer: B

Explanation:
Tagging is what the administrator should implement first to assist with reporting the cost for each business unit for applications in a public cloud environment. Tagging is a technique that allows customers to assign metadata or labels to their cloud resources, such as applications, instances, volumes, etc., based on their attributes or criteria. Tagging can help customers to organize, manage, monitor, and report their cloud resources and costs by business unit, project, owner, environment, etc.

NEW QUESTION 3

A technician just received the lessons learned from some recent data that was lost due to an on-premises file-server crash. The action point is to change the backup strategy to minimize manual intervention. Which of the following is the BEST approach for the technician to implement?

• A. Backup as a service
• B. RAID 1
• C. Long-term storage
• D. New backup devices

Answer: A

Explanation:
Backup as a service (BaaS) is the best approach for changing the backup strategy to minimize manual intervention after a data loss due to an on-premises file-server crash. BaaS is a cloud-based service that provides backup and recovery solutions for customers’ data and systems. BaaS can automate and simplify backup processes by using cloud storage, encryption, deduplication, compression, scheduling, etc., without requiring customers to purchase or maintain backup hardware or software.

NEW QUESTION 4

A cloud administrator needs to reduce storage costs. Which of the following would best help the administrator reach that goal?

• A. Enabling compression
• B. Implementing deduplication
• C. Using containers
• D. Rightsizing the VMs

Answer: B

Explanation:
Deduplication is a process by which redundant data is eliminated, thus reducing the size of the dataset. Deduplication with cloud storage reduces the storage requirements, along with the amount of data to be transferred over the network, resulting in faster and more efficient data protection operations1. Deduplication can help to shrink the data footprint, lower the storage costs, and improve the performance of backup and recovery processes2. Deduplication can be applied at different levels, such as file-level, block-level, or byte-level, depending on the granularity and efficiency of the technique3. Deduplication can also be performed at different locations, such as source, target, or cloud, depending on the architecture and design of the storage system3. By implementing deduplication, a cloud administrator can achieve significant data savings and optimize the cloud storage costs4. References: Data deduplication techniques for efficient cloud storage management: a systematic review; How Data Deduplication Reduces Cloud Data Costs; How Data Deduplication Can Save Cloud Storage Costs?; Data Deduplication Overview; What is Data Deduplication and How Can it Help Reduce Cloud Costs?.

NEW QUESTION 5

An SQL injection vulnerability was reported on a web application, and the cloud platform
team needs to mitigate the vulnerability while it is corrected by the development team. Which of the following controls will BEST mitigate the risk of exploitation?

• A. DLP
• B. HIDS
• C. NAC
• D. WAF

Answer: D

Explanation:
A web application firewall (WAF) is a type of network security device or software that monitors and filters HTTP traffic between a web application and the Internet. A WAF can help mitigate the risk of exploitation of an SQL injection vulnerability reported on a web application while it is corrected by the development team, as it can detect and block any malicious requests or queries that attempt to inject SQL commands into the web application’s database. A WAF can also help protect the web application from other common web-based attacks, such as cross-site scripting (XSS), remote file inclusion (RFI), or denial-of-service (DoS). References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 14, section 2.7

NEW QUESTION 6

A technician is working with an American company that is using cloud services to provide
video-based training for its customers. Recently, due to a surge in demand, customers in Europe are experiencing latency.
Which of the following services should the technician deploy to eliminate the latency issue?

• A. Auto-scaling
• B. Cloud bursting
• C. A content delivery network
• D. A new cloud provider

Answer: C

Explanation:
https://www.cloudflare.com/learning/cdn/what-is-a-cdn/
"A content delivery network (CDN) refers to a geographically distributed group of servers which work together to provide fast delivery of Internet content."

NEW QUESTION 7

A cloud administrator is setting up a DR site on a different zone of the same CSP. The application servers are replicated using the VM replication, and the database replication is set up using log shipping. Upon testing the DR site, the application servers are unable to access the database servers. The administrator has verified the systems are running and are accessible from the CSP portal.
Which of the following should the administrator do to fix this issue?

• A. Change the database application IP
• B. Create a database cluster between the primary site and the DR site
• C. Update the connection string
• D. Edit the DNS record at the DR site for the application servers

Answer: C

Explanation:
A connection string is a parameter that specifies how to connect to a database server or instance. A connection string typically includes information such as the server name, database name, user name, password, and other options. Updating the connection string is the best way to fix the issue of application servers being unable to access the database servers after setting up a DR site on a different zone of the same CSP and replicating the application and database servers using VM replication and log shipping. Updating the connection string can ensure that the application servers can connect to the correct database server or instance in the DR site, as the server name or IP address may have changed after the replication. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 10, section 1.5

NEW QUESTION 8

A global web-hosting company is concerned about the availability of its platform during an upcoming event. Web traffic is forecasted to increase substantially during the next week. The site contains mainly static content.
Which of the following solutions will assist with the increased workload?

• A. DoH
• B. WAF
• C. IPS
• D. CDN

Answer: D

Explanation:
A content delivery network (CDN) is a distributed network of servers that delivers web content to users based on their geographic location, origin server, and content delivery server. A CDN can assist with the increased workload caused by sudden continuous bursts of traffic, as it can reduce the load on the origin server by caching and serving static content from edge servers closer to the users. A CDN can also improve the performance and availability of web content delivery, as it can reduce latency, bandwidth consumption, and network congestion. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 12, section 2.2
Reference: https://www.globaldots.com/content-delivery-network-explained

NEW QUESTION 9

A cloud solutions architect needs to determine the best strategy to deploy an application environment in production, given the following requirements:
No downtime
Instant switch to a new version using traffic control for all users
Which of the following deployment strategies would be the BEST solution?

• A. Hot site
• B. Blue-green
• C. Canary
• D. Rolling

Answer: B

Explanation:
Reference: https://thenewstack.io/deployment-strategies/
Blue-green is the best deployment strategy to deploy an application environment in production, given the requirements of no downtime and instant switch to a new version using traffic control for all users. Blue-green is a deployment strategy that involves having two identical environments, one running the current version of the application (blue) and one running the new version of the application (green). The traffic is directed to the blue environment by default, while the green environment is tested and verified. When the new version is ready to go live, the traffic is switched to the green environment using a router or load balancer, without any downtime or interruption. The blue environment can be kept as a backup or updated with the new version for future deployments.

NEW QUESTION 10

A systems administrator is configuring a cloud solution for a vulnerability assessment to test the company's resources that are hosted in a public cloud. The solution must test the company's resources from an external user's perspective. Which of the following should the systems administrator configure?

• A. An agent-based scan
• B. A network-based scan
• C. A port scan
• D. A credentialed scan

Answer: B

Explanation:
A network-based scan is a type of vulnerability assessment that tests the security of a system or a network from an external user’s perspective, without requiring any software or credentials on the target. A network-based scan can identify vulnerabilities such as open ports, misconfigured firewalls, outdated software, or exposed services .

NEW QUESTION 11

A database analyst reports it takes two hours to perform a scheduled job after onboarding 10,000 new users to the system. The analyst made no changes to the scheduled job before or after onboarding the users. The database is hosted in an IaaS instance on a cloud provider. Which of the following should the cloud administrator evaluate to troubleshoot the performance of the job?

• A. The laaS compute configurations, the capacity trend analysis reports, and the storage IOPS
• B. The hypervisor logs, the memory utilization of the hypervisor host, and the network throughput of the hypervisor
• C. The scheduled job logs for successes and failures, the time taken to execute the job, and the job schedule
• D. Migrating from laaS to on premises, the network traffic between on-premises users and the laaS instance, and the CPU utilization of the hypervisor host

Answer: A

Explanation:
To troubleshoot the performance of a scheduled job that takes two hours to run after onboarding 10,000 new users to a cloud-based system, the administrator should evaluate the IaaS compute configurations, the capacity trend analysis reports, and the storage IOPS. These factors can affect the performance of a database job in an IaaS instance on a cloud provider. The IaaS compute configurations include the CPU, memory, and network resources assigned to the instance. The capacity trend analysis reports show the historical and projected usage and demand of the resources. The storage IOPS (Input/Output Operations Per Second) measure the speed and performance of the disk storage. The administrator should check if these factors are sufficient, optimal, or need to be adjusted to improve the performance of the job.

NEW QUESTION 12

A cloud administrator needs to implement a new system within the current CSR The system requires a storage service to allocate a large number of digital files and images. The storage service must keep files for distributed access and serve images directly to the user's browser. Which of the following solutions would best meet these requirements?

• A. NAS storage
• B. Object storage
• C. File storage
• D. Block storage

Answer: B

Explanation:
One possible solution for the cloud administrator is to use object storage. Object storage is a type of cloud storage service that stores data as objects, which consist of data, metadata, and a unique identifier. Object storage can allocate a large number of digital files and images, as it can scale to petabytes of capacity and handle billions of objects. Object storage can also keep files for distributed access, as it can store data across multiple regions and zones, and provide high availability and durability. Object storage can also serve images directly to the user’s browser, as it can generate public URLs for each object that can be accessed over the internet12.
NAS storage, file storage, and block storage are not the best solutions for these requirements, as they have some limitations compared to object storage. NAS storage and file storage store data as files in a hierarchical structure, which can be inefficient for managing a large number of files and images. Block storage stores data as blocks in a fixed structure, which can be wasteful for storing variable-sized files and images. NAS storage, file storage, and block storage also require a file system or a protocol to access the data, which can add complexity and overhead to the system12.

NEW QUESTION 13

A cloud administrator needs to coordinate and automate the management of a company's secrets and keys for all its cloud services with minimal effort and low cost. Which of the following is the BEST option to achieve the goal?

• A. Implement database as a service
• B. Configure Key Vault
• C. Use password as a service
• D. Implement KeePass

Answer: B

Explanation:
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/key-vault/key-vault-whatis
Key Vault is a service that allows you to store and manage secrets and keys for your cloud services in a secure and centralized way. It also provides access control, auditing, and encryption features. This would be the best option to automate the management of secrets and keys for all cloud services with minimal effort and low cost. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3.0 Maintenance, Objective 3.4 Given a scenario, implement automation and orchestration to optimize cloud operations.

NEW QUESTION 14

A systems administrator is examining a managed hosting agreement and wants to determine how much data would be lost if a server had to be restored from backups. To which of the following metrics should the administrator refer?

• A. RTO
• B. MTBF
• C. RPO
• D. MTTR

Answer: C

Explanation:
RPO (Recovery Point Objective) is the metric that the administrator should refer to determine how much data would be lost if a server had to be restored from backups. RPO is a metric that measures how much data can be lost or how far back in time a recovery point can be without causing significant impact or damage. RPO can help to determine how much data would be lost by comparing the time of the disruption or disaster with the time of the last backup or snapshot. RPO can also help to determine how frequently backups or snapshots should be performed to minimize data loss.

NEW QUESTION 15

A systems administrator is using a configuration management tool to perform maintenance tasks in a system. The tool is leveraging the target system's API to perform these maintenance tasks After a number of features and security updates are applied to the target system, the configuration management tool no longer works as expected. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?

• A. The target system's API functionality has been deprecated
• B. The password for the service account has expired
• C. The IP addresses of the target system have changed
• D. The target system has failed after the updates

Answer: A

Explanation:
The target system’s API (Application Programming Interface) functionality has been deprecated is what will most likely cause the issue of configuration management tool no longer working as expected after using it to perform maintenance tasks in a system using its API, and applying features and security updates to it. An API is a set of rules or specifications that defines how different software components or systems can communicate and interact with each other. An API functionality is a feature or function that an API provides or supports, such as methods, parameters, responses, etc. An API functionality can be deprecated when it is no longer maintained or supported by the API provider or developer, and is replaced or removed by a newer or better functionality. The target system’s API functionality has been deprecated can cause the issue by making the configuration management tool unable to use or access the API functionality that it relies on to perform maintenance tasks in the system, which may result in errors or failures.

NEW QUESTION 16

A cloud administrator needs to deploy a security virtual appliance in a private cloud environment, but this appliance will not be part of the standard catalog of items for other users to request. Which of the following is the BEST way to accomplish this task?

• A. Create an empty V
• B. import the hard disk of the virtual applianc
• C. and configure the CPU and memory.
• D. Acquire the build scripts from the vendor and recreate the appliance using the baseline templates
• E. Import the virtual appliance into the environment and deploy it as a VM
• F. Convert the virtual appliance to a template and deploy a new VM using the template.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Import the virtual appliance into the environment and deploy it as a VM.
A virtual appliance is a pre-packaged and pre-configured software solution that runs on a virtual machine (VM). A virtual appliance typically consists of an operating system, an application, and any required dependencies, and is designed to provide a specific function or service. A virtual appliance can be distributed as a single file or a set of files that can be imported into a virtualization platform, such as VMware, Hyper-V, or KVM .
A cloud administrator can deploy a security virtual appliance in a private cloud environment by importing the virtual appliance into the environment and deploying it as a VM. This is the best way to accomplish this task because it preserves the original configuration and functionality of the virtual appliance, and does not require any additional installation or customization. The cloud administrator can also control the access and visibility of the virtual appliance, and prevent other users from requesting it from the standard catalog of items .
Creating an empty VM, importing the hard disk of the virtual appliance, and configuring the CPU and memory is not the best way to accomplish this task because it involves more steps and complexity than importing the virtual appliance as a whole. It also introduces the risk of losing or corrupting some data or settings during the import process, or misconfiguring the CPU and memory for the virtual appliance.
Acquiring the build scripts from the vendor and recreating the appliance using the baseline templates is not the best way to accomplish this task because it involves more time and effort than importing the virtual appliance directly. It also depends on whether the vendor provides the build scripts or not, and whether they are compatible with the baseline templates or not.
Converting the virtual appliance to a template and deploying a new VM using the template is not the best way to accomplish this task because it adds an unnecessary step of creating a template from the virtual appliance. It also does not prevent other users from accessing or requesting the template from the catalog of items.

NEW QUESTION 17

A systems administrator has verified that a physical switchport that is connected to a virtualization host is using all available bandwidth. Which of the following would best address this issue?

• A. Port mirroring
• B. Link aggregation
• C. Spanning tree
• D. Microsegmentation

Answer: B

Explanation:
Link aggregation is a technique that combines multiple physical links into a logical link that provides higher bandwidth and redundancy. Link aggregation can help address the issue of a physical switchport that is connected to a virtualization host using all available bandwidth by increasing the capacity and availability of the connection. Link aggregation can also balance the traffic load across the links and improve the fault tolerance of the network. Link aggregation can be implemented using protocols such as LACP (Link Aggregation Control Protocol) or static configuration. References: CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 3, Objective 3.2: Given a scenario, troubleshoot network connectivity
issues.

NEW QUESTION 18

A company needs to migrate the storage system and batch jobs from the local storage system to a public cloud provider. Which of the following accounts will MOST likely be created to run the batch processes?

• A. User
• B. LDAP
• C. Role-based
• D. Service

Answer: D

Explanation:
A service account is what will most likely be created to run the batch processes that migrate the storage system and batch jobs from the local storage system to a public cloud provider. A service account is a special type of account that is used to perform automated tasks or operations on a system or service, such as running scripts, applications, or processes. A service account can provide benefits such as:
✑ Security: A service account can have limited or specific permissions and roles that are required to perform the tasks or operations, which can prevent unauthorized or malicious access or actions.
✑ Efficiency: A service account can run the tasks or operations without any human intervention or interaction, which can save time and effort.
✑ Reliability: A service account can run the tasks or operations consistently and accurately, which can reduce errors or failures.

NEW QUESTION 19

Over the last couple of years, the growth of a company has required a more complex DNS and DHCP environment. Which of the following should a systems administration team implement as an appropriate solution to simplify management?

• A. IPAM
• B. DoH
• C. VLAN
• D. SDN

Answer: A

Explanation:
The best solution to simplify management of a more complex DNS and DHCP environment for a company that has grown over the last couple of years is IPAM (IP address management). IPAM is a tool or service that allows centralized management and automation of DNS and DHCP functions, such as IP address allocation, reservation, release, or renewal, as well as domain name registration or resolution. IPAM can also provide monitoring, auditing, reporting, and security features for DNS and DHCP resources. Reference: [CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 3.0 Maintenance, Objective 3.4 Given a scenario, implement automation and orchestration to optimize cloud operations.

NEW QUESTION 20
......