Abreast Of The Times CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam CV0-003 Testing Bible

NEW QUESTION 1

Users of a public website that is hosted on a cloud platform are receiving a message indicating the connection is not secure when landing on the website. The administrator has found that only a single protocol is opened to the service and accessed through the URL https://www.comptiasite.com. Which of the following would MOST likely resolve the issue?

• A. Renewing the expired certificate
• B. Updating the web-server software
• C. Changing the crypto settings on the web server
• D. Upgrading the users' browser to the latest version

Answer: A

Explanation:
Renewing the expired certificate is what would most likely resolve the issue of users receiving a message indicating the connection is not secure when landing on a website that is hosted on a cloud platform and accessed through https://www.comptiasite.com. A certificate is a digital document that contains information such as identity, public key, expiration date, etc., that can be used to prove one’s identity and establish secure communication over a network. A certificate can expire when it reaches its validity period and needs to be renewed or replaced. An expired certificate can cause users to receive a message indicating the connection is not secure by indicating that the website’s identity or security cannot be verified or trusted. Renewing the expired certificate can resolve the issue by extending its validity period and restoring its identity or security verification or trust.

NEW QUESTION 2

A company that requires full administrative control at the OS level is considering the use of public cloud services. Which of the following service models would BEST fit the company's requirements?

• A. SaaS
• B. DBaaS
• C. PaaS
• D. laaS

Answer: D

Explanation:
laaS (Infrastructure as a Service) is a public cloud service model that provides access to fundamental compute, network, and storage resources on demand over the public Internet or through dedicated connections. Customers can provision and configure these resources according to their needs, and they have full administrative control at the OS level. This means that customers can install, update, and manage any software or applications they want on the cloud servers, as well as apply their own security and compliance policies. laaS is suitable for companies that require high flexibility and customization of their cloud infrastructure, as well as scalability and cost-efficiency.

NEW QUESTION 3

A security audit related to confidentiality controls found the following transactions occurring in the system:
GET
http://gateway.securetransaction.com/privileged/api/v1/changeResource?id=123&user=277 Which of the following solutions will solve the audit finding?

• A. Using a TLS-protected API endpoint
• B. Implementing a software firewall
• C. Deploying a HIDS on each system
• D. Implementing a Layer 4 load balancer

Answer: A

Explanation:
Reference: https://cheatsheetseries.owasp.org/cheatsheets/Transport_Layer_Protection_Cheat_Sheet
.html
The audit finding is related to confidentiality, which means the data should be protected from unauthorized access. The current API endpoint is using HTTP, which is not secure and can expose the data in transit. Using a TLS-protected API endpoint would encrypt the data and prevent anyone from reading it. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2.0 Security, Objective 2.1 Given a scenario, apply security configurations and compliance controls to meet cloud security requirements.

NEW QUESTION 4

An organization is developing a new online product. The product must:
• Minimize organizational infrastructure and comply with security standards.
• Minimize organizational compliance efforts.
• Focus on application development and increase speed to market.
Which of the following should the organization consider, given the requirements listed above?

• A. Use cloud-native serverless services.
• B. Implement automated compliance scanning tools.
• C. Harden servers using repeatable compliance templates.
• D. Deploy compliance linters in the CI/CD pipeline.

Answer: A

Explanation:
One possible answer is:
A. Use cloud-native serverless services.
Cloud-native serverless services are a type of cloud computing that allows developers to build and run applications without having to manage servers, infrastructure, or scaling. Cloud-native serverless services can help the organization meet the requirements listed above, as they can:
✑ Minimize organizational infrastructure and comply with security standards. Cloud- native serverless services are fully managed by the cloud provider, which means the organization does not have to provision, configure, or maintain any servers or infrastructure. The cloud provider also handles the security aspects of the serverless environment, such as encryption, authentication, authorization, patching, and monitoring. The organization can focus on developing the application logic and rely on the cloud provider to meet the security standards12.
✑ Minimize organizational compliance efforts. Cloud-native serverless services can also help the organization reduce the compliance burden, as they can leverage the compliance certifications and attestations of the cloud provider. The cloud provider can ensure that the serverless environment complies with various regulations and standards, such as PCI DSS, HIPAA, GDPR, ISO 27001, etc. The organization can inherit the compliance posture of the cloud provider and avoid the hassle of auditing and validating their own infrastructure12.
✑ Focus on application development and increase speed to market. Cloud-native serverless services can also enable the organization to accelerate the development and delivery of their online product, as they can write code using their preferred programming languages and frameworks, and deploy it quickly and easily to the serverless environment. The serverless environment can automatically scale up or down based on the demand, ensuring high availability and performance. The organization can also integrate serverless services with other cloud services, such as databases, storage, analytics, etc., to create a full- stack application12.

NEW QUESTION 5

A cloud administrator is upgrading a cloud environment and needs to update the automation script to use a new feature from the cloud provider. After executing the script, the deployment fails. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

• A. API incompatibility
• B. Location changes
• C. Account permissions
• D. Network failure

Answer: A

Explanation:
API incompatibility is the most likely cause of the failure of an automation script to use a new feature from the cloud provider. API (Application Programming Interface) is a set of rules or specifications that defines how different software components or systems can communicate and interact with each other. API incompatibility is a situation where an API does not work or function properly with another software component or system due to differences or changes in versions, formats, parameters, etc. API incompatibility can cause errors or issues when using an automation script to deploy or configure cloud resources or services, especially if the script is not updated or modified according to the new API specifications.

NEW QUESTION 6

A technician deployed a VM with NL-SAS storage to host a critical application. Two weeks later, users have begun to report high application latency. Which of the following is the best action to correct the latency issue?

• A. Increase the capacity of the data storage.
• B. Migrate the data to SAS storage.
• C. Increase the CPU of the VM.
• D. Migrate the data to flash storage.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Flash memory

Explore
One possible answer is:
D. Migrate the data to flash storage.
Flash storage is a type of solid-state storage technology that uses flash memory chips to store data. Flash storage has several advantages over NL-SAS storage, which is a hybrid of SATA and SAS technologies that uses spinning disks to store data. Flash storage can provide much faster performance, lower latency, higher reliability, and lower power consumption than NL-SAS storage12. Therefore, migrating the data to flash storage can help correct the latency issue for the critical application. However, flash storage may also be more expensive and have lower capacity than NL-SAS storage, so these factors should also be considered before making the migration decision12.

NEW QUESTION 7

A cloud administrator needs to implement a mechanism to monitor the expense of the company’s cloud resources.
Which of the following is the BEST option to execute this task with minimal effort?

• A. Ask the cloud provider to send a daily expense report
• B. Set custom notifications for exceeding budget thresholds
• C. Use the API to collect expense information from cloud resources
• D. Implement a financial tool to monitor cloud resource expenses

Answer: B

Explanation:
Setting custom notifications for exceeding budget thresholds is the best option to execute the task of monitoring the expense of the company’s cloud resources with minimal effort, as it can automate and simplify the process of tracking and alerting the cloud administrator about any overspending or wastage of cloud resources. Setting custom notifications can also help optimize the cost and performance of cloud resources, as it can enable timely and proactive actions to adjust or optimize the resource allocation or consumption based on the budget limits. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 13, section 2.5

NEW QUESTION 8

A financial industry services firm was the victim of an internal data breach, and the perpetrator was a member of the company's development team. During the investigation, one of the security administrators accidentally deleted the perpetrator's user data. Even though the data is recoverable, which of the following has been violated?

• A. Chain of custody
• B. Evidence acquisition
• C. Containment
• D. Root cause analysis

Answer: A

Explanation:
The chain of custody is a process that documents and preserves the integrity and authenticity of evidence from the time it is collected until it is presented in court. The chain of custody includes information such as who collected, handled, stored, or transferred the evidence, when and where it was done, and how it was done. By accidentally deleting the perpetrator’s user data, the security administrator has violated the chain of custody, as the evidence has been altered or destroyed and can no longer be used in court. Reference: [CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 2.0 Security, Objective 2.4 Given a scenario, implement security automation and orchestration in a cloud environment.

NEW QUESTION 9

A company had a system compromise, and the engineering team resolved the issue after 12 hours. Which of the following information will MOST likely be requested by the Chief Information Officer (CIO) to understand the issue and its resolution?

• A. A root cause analysis
• B. Application documentation
• C. Acquired evidence
• D. Application logs

Answer: A

Explanation:
A root cause analysis is what will most likely be requested by the Chief Information Officer (CIO) to understand the issue and its resolution after a system compromise that was resolved by the engineering team after 12 hours. A root cause analysis is a technique of investigating and identifying the underlying or fundamental cause or reason for an incident or issue that affects or may affect the normal operation or performance of a system or service. A root cause analysis can help to understand the issue and its resolution by providing information such as:
✑ What happened: This describes what occurred during the incident or issue, such as symptoms, effects, impacts, etc.
✑ Why it happened: This explains why the incident or issue occurred, such as triggers, factors, conditions, etc.
✑ How it was resolved: This details how the incident or issue was fixed or mitigated, such as actions, steps, methods, etc.
✑ How it can be prevented: This suggests how the incident or issue can be avoided or reduced in the future, such as recommendations, improvements, changes, etc.

NEW QUESTION 10

A DevOps administrator is automating an existing software development workflow. The administrator wants to ensure that prior to any new code going into production, tests confirm the new code does not negatively impact existing automation activities.
Which of the following testing techniques would be BEST to use?

• A. Usability testing
• B. Regression testing
• C. Vulnerability testing
• D. Penetration testing

Answer: B

Explanation:
Regression testing is a type of testing that ensures that new code or changes to existing code do not break or degrade the functionality of the software. Regression testing is often used in software development workflows to verify that new features or bug fixes do not introduce new errors or affect the performance of the software. Regression testing can help prevent negative impacts on existing automation activities by checking that the new code is compatible with the existing code and does not cause any unexpected failures or errors. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 19, section 4.1
Reference: https://www.softwaretestinghelp.com/regression-testing-tools-and-methods/

NEW QUESTION 11

Which of the following definitions of serverless computing BEST explains how it is different from using VMs?

• A. Serverless computing is a cloud-hosting service that utilizes infrastructure that is fully managed by the CSP.
• B. Serverless computing uses predictable billing and offers lower costs than VM compute services.
• C. Serverless computing is a scalable, highly available cloud service that uses SDN technologies.
• D. Serverless computing allows developers to focus on writing code and organizations to focus on business.

Answer: D

Explanation:
This is the best definition of serverless computing that explains how it is different from using VMs (Virtual Machines). Serverless computing is a cloud service model that provides customers with a platform to run applications or functions without having to manage or provision any underlying infrastructure or resources, such as servers, storage, network, OS, etc. Serverless computing is different from using VMs in the following ways:
✑ Serverless computing allows developers to focus on writing code and organizations to focus on business, rather than spending time and effort on managing or scaling VMs or other infrastructure components.
✑ Serverless computing is event-driven and pay-per-use, which means that applications or functions are executed only when triggered by a specific event or request, and customers are charged only for the resources consumed during the execution time.
✑ Serverless computing is more scalable and flexible than using VMs, as it can automatically adjust the capacity and performance of applications or functions according to demand or workload, without requiring any manual intervention or configuration.

NEW QUESTION 12

A developer is no longer able to access a public cloud API deployment, which was working ten minutes prior.
Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?

• A. API provider rate limiting
• B. Invalid API token
• C. Depleted network bandwidth
• D. Invalid API request

Answer: A

Explanation:
API provider rate limiting is a restriction on the number of requests that can be made to a web service or application programming interface (API) within a certain time period. API provider rate limiting can cause a failure to access a public cloud API deployment, as it can reject or block any requests that exceed the limit. API provider rate limiting can be used by cloud providers to control the usage and traffic of their customers and prevent overloading or abuse of their resources. API provider rate limiting is the most likely cause for the developer being unable to access a public cloud API deployment that was working ten minutes prior. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 13, section 2.5

NEW QUESTION 13

A systems administrator is responsible for upgrading operating systems on VMs that are hosted in a cloud environment. The systems administrator wants to ensure the VMs receive updates for as long as possible. Which of the following should the systems administrator choose?

• A. Stable
• B. Nightly
• C. LTS
• D. Canary
• E. EDR

Answer: C

Explanation:
LTS stands for Long Term Support, and it is a term that refers to a version of an operating system that receives updates and security patches for a longer period of time than other versions. LTS versions are usually more stable and reliable than other versions, and they are suitable for users who want to avoid frequent changes or compatibility issues. By choosing LTS versions for the VMs that are hosted in a cloud environment, the systems administrator can ensure that the VMs receive updates for as long as possible, and benefit from the enhanced security and performance of the operating system. LTS versions are typically released every few years, and they are supported for several years after their release. For example, Ubuntu 20.04 LTS is supported until April 2025, while Ubuntu 21.04 is supported until January 2022. References: CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 5, Objective 5.2: Given a scenario, troubleshoot common cloud resource and service issues.

NEW QUESTION 14

Which of the following would be the BEST option for discussion of what individuals should do in an incident response or disaster recovery scenario?

• A. A business continuity plan
• B. Incident response/disaster recovery documentation
• C. A tabletop exercise
• D. A root cause analysis

Answer: C

Explanation:
A tabletop exercise is the best option for discussion of what individuals should do in an incident response or disaster recovery scenario. A tabletop exercise is a simulated scenario that involves key stakeholders and decision-makers who review and discuss their roles and responsibilities in response to an emergency situation or event. A tabletop exercise can help to test and evaluate plans, procedures, policies, training, and communication.

NEW QUESTION 15

A systems administrator is troubleshooting performance issues with a VDI environment. The administrator determines the issue is GPU related and then increases the frame buffer on the virtual machines. Testing confirms the issue is solved, and everything is now working correctly. Which of the following should the administrator do NEXT?

• A. Consult corporate policies to ensure the fix is allowed
• B. Conduct internal and external research based on the symptoms
• C. Document the solution and place it in a shared knowledge base
• D. Establish a plan of action to resolve the issue

Answer: C

Explanation:
Documenting the solution and placing it in a shared knowledge base is what the administrator should do next after troubleshooting performance issues with a VDI (Virtual Desktop Infrastructure) environment, determining that the issue is GPU (Graphics Processing Unit) related, increasing the frame buffer on the virtual machines, and testing that confirms that the issue is solved and everything is now working correctly. Documenting the solution is a process of recording and describing what was done to fix or resolve an issue, such as actions, steps, methods, etc., as well as why and how it worked. Placing it in a shared knowledge base is a process of storing and organizing documented solutions in a central location or repository that can be accessed and used by others. Documenting the solution and placing it in a shared knowledge base can provide benefits such as:
✑ Learning: Documenting the solution and placing it in a shared knowledge base can help to learn from past experiences and improve skills and knowledge.
✑ Sharing: Documenting the solution and placing it in a shared knowledge base can help to share information and insights with others who may face similar issues or situations.
✑ Reusing: Documenting the solution and placing it in a shared knowledge base can help to reuse existing solutions for future issues or situations.

NEW QUESTION 16

A support engineer wants to prevent users from running malware on several IaaS compute instances. Which of the following will BEST achieve this objective?

• A. Encrypt all applications that users should not access.
• B. Set the execute filesystem permissions on the desired applications only.
• C. Implement an application whitelisting policy.
• D. Disable file sharing on the instance.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Implementing an application whitelisting policy is the best way to prevent users from running malware on several IaaS compute instances. Application whitelisting is a security technique that allows only authorized or trusted applications to run on a system or device, and blocks or restricts all other applications. Application whitelisting can prevent users from running malware or unwanted software on their cloud instances, as well as reduce the attack surface and vulnerabilities of the system.

NEW QUESTION 17

A system administrator is migrating a bare-metal server to the cloud. Which of the following types of migration should the systems administrator perform to accomplish this task?

• A. V2V
• B. V2P
• C. P2P
• D. P2V

Answer: D

Explanation:
P2V (Physical to Virtual) is a type of migration that converts a physical server into a virtual machine (VM). P2V migration can help to move a bare-metal server to the cloud by creating an image of its disk and configuration and uploading it to a cloud platform that supports VM creation from custom images.

NEW QUESTION 18

A systems administrator is implementing a new file storage service that has been deployed in the company's private cloud instance. The key requirement is fast read/write times for the targeted users, and the budget for this project is not a concern. Which of the following storage types should the administrator deploy?

• A. Spinning disks
• B. NVMe
• C. SSD
• D. Hybrid

Answer: B

Explanation:
The best storage type to deploy for the new file storage service is NVMe. NVMe stands for Non-Volatile Memory Express, and it is a protocol that allows faster access to data stored on solid state drives (SSDs). NVMe can deliver high performance, low latency, and parallelism for the file storage service. NVMe can also support fast read/write times for the targeted users, which is the key requirement for the project. Since the budget for the project is not a concern, NVMe can be a suitable choice for the file storage service. References: CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 4, Objective 4.1: Given a scenario, implement cloud storage solutions.

NEW QUESTION 19

A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is evaluating the company’s security management program. The CISO needs to locate all the assets with identified deviations and mitigation measures. Which of the following would help the CISO with these requirements?

• A. An SLA document
• B. ADR plan
• C. SOC procedures
• D. A risk register

Answer: D

Explanation:
A risk register is a document that records all the identified risks, their causes, impacts, probabilities, mitigation measures, and status for a project or an organization. A risk register helps to manage and monitor risks throughout their lifecycle and ensure they are addressed appropriately. A risk register would help the CISO to locate all the assets with identified deviations and mitigation measures.

NEW QUESTION 20
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