A Review Of Pinpoint N10-009 Question

NEW QUESTION 1

A network administrator needs to change where the outside DNS records are hosted.
Which of the following records should the administrator change at the registrar to accomplish this task?

• A. NS
• B. SOA
• C. PTR
• D. CNAME

Answer: A

Explanation:
NS stands for Name Server, and it is a DNS record that specifies which servers are authoritative for a domain. The registrar is the entity that manages the domain registration and delegation, and it maintains the NS records for each domain. To change where the outside DNS records are hosted, the network administrator needs to change the NS records at the registrar to point to the new DNS servers that will host the outside DNS records.
References:
✑ DNS Record Types – N10-008 CompTIA Network+ : 1.61
✑ CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Cert Guide, page 1472

NEW QUESTION 2

A network technician needs to ensure that all files on a company's network can be moved in a safe and protected manner without interception from someone who is not the intended recipient. Which of the following would allow the network technician to meet these requirements?

• A. FTP
• B. TFTP
• C. SMTP
• D. SFTP

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 3

While setting up a new workstation, a technician discovers that the network connection is only 100 full duplex (FD), although it is connected to a gigabit switch.
While reviewing the interface information in the switch CLI, the technician notes the port is operating at IOOFD but Shows many RX and TX errors. The technician moves the computer to another switchport and experiences the same issues.
Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of the low data rate and port errors?

• A. Bad switch ports
• B. Duplex issues
• C. Cable length
• D. Incorrect pinout

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 4

A company's publicly accessible servers are connected to a switch between the company's ISP-connected router and the firewall in front of the company network. The firewall is stateful, and the router is running an ACL. Which of the following best describes the area between the router and the firewall?

• A. Untrusted zone
• B. Screened subnet
• C. Trusted zone
• D. Private VLAN

Answer: B

Explanation:
A screened subnet is a network segment that is isolated from both the internal and external networks by firewalls or routers. It is used to host publicly accessible servers that need some protection from external attacks, but also need to be separated from the internal network for security reasons.
References
✑ 1: Seven-Second Subnetting – N10-008 CompTIA Network+ : 1.4
✑ 2: CompTIA Network+ Study Guide: Exam N10-008, 5th Edition, page 56
✑ 3: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Exam Subnetting Quiz, question 22

NEW QUESTION 5

During an incident, an analyst sends reports regularly to the investigation and leadership teams. Which of the following best describes how Pll should be safeguarded during an incident?

• A. Implement data encryption and store the data so only the company has access.
• B. Ensure permissions are limited to the investigation team and encrypt the data.
• C. Implement data encryption and create a standardized procedure for deleting data that is no longer needed.
• D. Ensure the permissions are open only to the company.

Answer: C

Explanation:
PII stands for Personally Identifiable Information, which is any data that can be used to identify, contact, or locate a specific individual, such as name, address, phone number, email, social security number, and so on. PII should be safeguarded during an incident to protect the privacy and security of the individuals involved, and to comply with the legal and ethical obligations of the organization. One way to safeguard PII during an incident is to implement data encryption, which is a process of transforming data into an unreadable format that can only be accessed by authorized parties who have the decryption key. Data encryption can prevent unauthorized access, modification, or disclosure of PII by malicious actors or third parties. Another way to safeguard PII during an incident is to create a standardized procedure for deleting data that is no longer needed, such as after the incident is resolved or the investigation is completed. Deleting data that is no longer needed can reduce the risk of data breaches, data leaks, or data theft, and can also save storage space and resources. A standardized procedure for deleting data can ensure that the data is erased securely and completely, and that the deletion process is documented and audited.
References
✑ 1: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 304-305
✑ 2: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Exam Subnetting Quiz, question 13
✑ 3: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Practice Test, question 5
✑ 4: Data Encryption – N10-008 CompTIA Network+ : 3.1

NEW QUESTION 6

Which of the following ports is a secure protocol?

• A. 20
• B. 23
• C. 443
• D. 445

Answer: C

Explanation:
This is the port number for HTTPS, which stands for Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure. HTTPS is a secure version of HTTP, which is the protocol used to communicate between web browsers and web servers. HTTPS encrypts the data sent and received using SSL/TLS, which are cryptographic protocols that provide authentication, confidentiality, and integrity. HTTPS is commonly used for online transactions, such as banking and shopping, where security and privacy are important

NEW QUESTION 7

Logs show an unauthorized IP address entering a secure part of the network every night at 8:00 pm. The network administrator is concerned that this IP address will cause an issue to a critical server and would like to deny the IP address at the edge of the network. Which of the following solutions would address these concerns?

• A. Changing the VLAN of the web server
• B. Changing the server's IP address
• C. Implementing an ACL
• D. Instating a rule on the firewall connected to the web server

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 8

A technician received a report that some users in a large, 30-floor building are having intermittent connectivity issues. Users on each floor have stable connectivity, but do not have connectivity to other floors. Which of the following devices is MOST likely causing the issue?

• A. User devices
• B. Edge devices
• C. Access switch
• D. Core switch

Answer: D

Explanation:
A core switch is the most likely device causing the issue where users on each floor have stable connectivity, but do not have connectivity to other floors. A core switch is a high-performance switch that connects multiple access switches in a network. An access switch is a switch that connects end devices, such as computers and printers, to the network. A core switch acts as the backbone of the network, providing interconnection and routing between different subnets or VLANs. If the core switch is malfunctioning or misconfigured, it can prevent communication between different segments of the network, resulting in intermittent connectivity issues. References: [CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives], Core Switch vs Access Switch: What Are the Differences?

NEW QUESTION 9

An auditor assessing network best practices was able to connect a rogue switch into a network Jack and get network connectivity. Which of the following controls would BEST address this risk?

• A. Activate port security on the switchports providing end user access.
• B. Deactivate Spanning Tree Protocol on network interfaces that are facing public areas.
• C. Disable Neighbor Resolution Protocol in the Layer 2 devices.
• D. Ensure port tagging is in place for network interfaces in guest areas

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 10

A network administrator redesigned the positioning of the APs to create adjacent areas of wireless coverage. After project validation, some users still report poor connectivity when their devices maintain an association to a distanced AP. Which of the following should the network administrator check FIRST?

• A. Validate the roaming settings on the APs and WLAN clients
• B. Verify that the AP antenna type is correct for the new layout
• C. Check to see if MU-MIMO was properly activated on the APs
• D. Deactivate the 2.4GHz band on the APS

Answer: A

Explanation:
The network administrator should check the roaming settings on the APs and WLAN clients first. Roaming is the process of switching from one AP to another without losing connectivity. If the roaming settings are not configured properly, some users may experience poor connectivity when their devices stay connected to a distant AP instead of switching to a closer one. References: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/wireless-lan-wlan/82068- roam-faq.html

NEW QUESTION 11

A medical building offers patients Wi-Fi in the waiting room. Which of the following security
features would be the BEST solution to provide secure connections and keep the medical data protected?

• A. Isolating the guest network
• B. Securing SNMP
• C. MAC filtering
• D. Disabling unneeded switchports

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 12

An engineer needs to restrict the database servers that are in the same subnet from communicating with each other. The database servers will still need to communicate with the application servers in a different subnet. In some cases, the database servers will be clustered, and the servers will need to communicate with other cluster members. Which of the following technologies will be BEST to use to implement this filtering without creating rules?

• A. Private VLANs
• B. Access control lists
• C. Firewalls
• D. Control plane policing

Answer: A

Explanation:
"Use private VLANs: Also known as port isolation, creating a private VLAN is a method of restricting switch ports (now called private ports) so that they can communicate only with a particular uplink. The private VLAN usually has numerous private ports and only one uplink, which is usually connected to a router, or firewall."

NEW QUESTION 13

A technician is troubleshooting a user's connectivity issues and finds that the computer's IP address was changed to 169.254.0.1.
Which of the following is the most likely reason?

• A. Two or more computers have the same IP address in the ARP table.
• B. The computer automatically set this address because the DHCP was not available.
• C. The computer was set up to perform as an NTP server.
• D. The computer is on a VPN and is the first to obtain a different IP address in that network.

Answer: B

Explanation:
IP addresses beginning with 169.254. are called link-local addresses or APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing)1. They are assigned by the computer itself when it cannot reach a DHCP server to obtain a valid IP address from the network2. This can happen for several reasons, such as a faulty router, a misconfigured network, or a disconnected cable3.
To troubleshoot this issue, the technician should check the network settings, the router configuration, and the physical connection of the computer. The technician should also try to renew the IP address by using the command ipconfig /renew in Windows or dhclient in Linux. If the problem persists, the technician may need to contact the network administrator or the ISP for further assistance.

NEW QUESTION 14

A new office space is being designed. The network switches are up. but no services are running yet A network engineer plugs in a laptop configured as a DHCP client to a switch Which ol the following IP addresses should be assigned to the laptop?

• A. 10.1.1.1
• B. 169.254.1.128
• C. 172 16 128 128
• D. 192 168.0.1

Answer: B

Explanation:
When a DHCP client is connected to a network and no DHCP server is available, the client can automatically configure a link-local address in the 169.254.0.0/16 range using the Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) feature. So, the correct answer is option B, 169.254.1.128. This is also known as an APIPA address.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ Study Guide, Exam N10-007, Fourth Edition, by Todd
Lammle (Chapter 4: IP Addressing)

NEW QUESTION 15

All packets arriving at an interface need to be fully analyzed. Which of me following features should be used to enable monitoring of the packets?

• A. LACP
• B. Flow control
• C. Port mirroring
• D. NetFlow exporter

Answer: D

Explanation:
Port mirroring is a feature that can be used to enable monitoring of all packets arriving at an interface. This feature is used to direct a copy of all traffic passing through the switch to a monitoring device, such as a network analyzer. This allows the switch to be monitored with the network analyzer in order to identify any malicious or suspicious activity. Additionally, port mirroring can be used to troubleshoot network issues, such as latency or poor performance.

NEW QUESTION 16

A network engineer turned on logging to assist with troubleshooting a suspected configuration issue informative log information?

• A. FATAL
• B. ERROR
• C. DEBUG
• D. WARN

Answer: C

Explanation:
DEBUG is the log level that provides the most informative log information for troubleshooting a suspected configuration issue. Logging is a feature that allows network devices to record events and messages related to their operation and status. Logging can help network engineers to monitor, diagnose, and resolve network problems. Log levels are categories that indicate the severity or importance of a log message. Different log levels provide different amounts of detail and verbosity. DEBUG is the lowest log level, which means it provides the most detailed and verbose information about every action and event that occurs on a network device. DEBUG can help network engineers to identify configuration errors, misbehaving processes, or unexpected outcomes. However, DEBUG can also generate a lot of noise and overhead, which can affect the performance and availability of the network device. Therefore, DEBUG should be used sparingly and only when necessary. References: [CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam
Objectives], Understanding Logging Levels - Cisco

NEW QUESTION 17

A technician is investigating a misconfiguration on a Layer 3 switch. When the technician logs in and runs a command, the following data is shown:
Which of the following commands generated this output?

• A. show route
• B. show config
• C. show interface
• D. tcpdump
• E. netstat —s

Answer: C

Explanation:
The output shown in the image is from the show interface command, which displays information about the status and configuration of a network interface on a switch or router. The output includes the interface name, description, MAC address, IP address, speed, duplex mode, status, and statistics. The show route command displays the routing table of the device. The show config command displays the current configuration of the device. The tcpdump command captures and analyzes network traffic. The netstat -s command displays statistics for each protocol.
References: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives Version 7.0 (N10-007), Objective 2.4: Given a scenario, use appropriate software tools to troubleshoot connectivity issues.

NEW QUESTION 18

A technician is troubleshooting a connectivity issue with an end user. The end user can access local network shares and intranet pages but is unable to access the internet or remote resources. Which of the following needs to be reconfigured?

• A. The IP address
• B. The subnet mask
• C. The gateway address
• D. The DNS servers

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 19

To reduce costs and increase mobility, a Chief Technology Officer (CTO) wants to adopt cloud services for the organization and its affiliates. To reduce the impact for users, the CTO wants key services to run from the on-site data center and enterprise services to run in the cloud. Which of the following deployment models is the best choice for the organization?

• A. Public
• B. Hybrid
• C. SaaS
• D. Private

Answer: B

Explanation:
A hybrid cloud deployment model is a combination of on-premise and cloud solutions, where some resources are hosted in-house and some are hosted by a cloud provider. A hybrid cloud model can offer the benefits of both public and private clouds, such as scalability, cost-efficiency, security, and control12. A hybrid cloud model can also reduce the impact for users, as they can access the key services from the on-site data center and the enterprise services from the cloud

NEW QUESTION 20

Which of the following network types is composed of computers that can all communicate with one another with equal permissions and allows users to directly share what is on or
attached to their computers?

• A. Local area network
• B. Peer-to-peer network
• C. Client-server network
• D. Personal area network

Answer: B

Explanation:
A peer-to-peer network is a type of network in which each computer (or node) can communicate directly with any other node, without requiring a central server or authority. Each node can act as both a client and a server, and can share its own resources, such as files, printers, or internet connection, with other nodes. A peer-to-peer network allows users to directly access and exchange what is on or attached to their computers, with equal permissions and responsibilities

NEW QUESTION 21
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