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NEW QUESTION 1

A technician is installing the Wi-Fi infrastructure for legacy industrial machinery at a warehouse. The equipment only supports 802.11a and 802.11b standards. Speed of transmission is the top business requirement. Which of the following is the correct maximum speed for this scenario?

  • A. 11Mbps
  • B. 54Mbps
  • C. 128Mbps
  • D. 144Mbps

Answer: B

Explanation:
802.11b (Wi-Fi 1) 11 Mbps
100 meter maximum effective range 802.11a (Wi-Fi 2)
54 Mbps
50 meter maximum effective range

NEW QUESTION 2

A network administrator is creating a subnet for a remote office that has 53 network devices. An additional requirement is to use the most efficient subnet. Which of the following CIDR notations indicates the appropriate number of IP addresses with the LEAST amount of unused addresses? (Choose Correct option and give explanation directly from CompTIA Network+ Study guide or documents)

  • A. /24
  • B. /26
  • C. /28
  • D. /32

Answer: B

Explanation:
This CIDR notation indicates that there are 64 IP addresses, of which 62 are usable for network devices. This provides the LEAST amount of unused addresses, making it the most efficient subnet for a remote office with 53 network devices. According to the CompTIA Network+ Study Guide, "Subnetting allows you to divide one large network into smaller, more manageable networks or subnets."

NEW QUESTION 3

An engineer was asked to update an MX record for an upcoming project. Which of the following server types is MOST likely to be in scope for the project?

  • A. Email
  • B. Web
  • C. File
  • D. Database

Answer: A

Explanation:
An MX record is a type of DNS record that specifies the mail server responsible for accepting email messages on behalf of a domain name. Therefore, an engineer who needs to update an MX record is most likely working on an email server project

NEW QUESTION 4

A new global ISP needs to connect from central offices in North America to the United Kingdom. Which of the following would be the BEST cabling solution for this project?

  • A. Single-mode
  • B. Coaxial
  • C. Cat 6a
  • D. Twinaxial

Answer: A

Explanation:
For a new global ISP to connect from central offices in North America to the United Kingdom, the best cabling solution would be single-mode fiber optic cable. Single- mode fiber optic cable is a type of cable that is used to transmit data over long distances using light signals. It is typically used in long-haul communication networks, such as those that connect different countries or continents.

NEW QUESTION 5

Which of the following is MOST commonly used to address CVEs on network equipment and/or operating systems?

  • A. Vulnerability assessment
  • B. Factory reset
  • C. Firmware update
  • D. Screened subnet

Answer: C

Explanation:
Firmware is a type of software that controls the low-level functions of a hardware device, such as a router, switch, printer, or camera. Firmware updates are patches or upgrades that fix bugs, improve performance, add features, or address security vulnerabilities in firmware. Firmware updates are commonly used to address CVEs (Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures) on network equipment and operating systems, as CVEs are publicly known flaws that can be exploited by attackers. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-firmware

NEW QUESTION 6

Which of the following would be used to expedite MX record updates to authoritative NSs?

  • A. UDP forwarding
  • B. DNS caching
  • C. Recursive lookup
  • D. Time to live

Answer: D

Explanation:
Time to live (TTL) is a value that indicates how long a DNS record can be cached by authoritative NSs (name servers) or other DNS servers before it expires and needs to be updated. A lower TTL value would expedite MX record updates to authoritative NSs, as they would refresh the record more frequently. UDP forwarding is not a DNS term, but a technique of sending UDP packets from one host to another. DNS caching is the process of storing DNS records locally for faster resolution, which does not expedite MX record updates. Recursive lookup is a type of DNS query where a DNS server queries other DNS servers on behalf of a client until it finds the answer, which does not expedite MX record updates.

NEW QUESTION 7

Which of the following would enable a network technician to implement dynamic routing?

  • A. An IPS
  • B. A bridge
  • C. A Layer 3 switch
  • D. A hub

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 8

An engineer needs to verity the external record tor SMTP traffic. The engineer logged in to the server and entered the nslookup command. Which of the following commands should the engineer send before entering the DNS name?

  • A. set type=A
  • B. is -d company-mail.com
  • C. set domain=company.mail.com
  • D. set querytype=Mx

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 9

Which of the following attacks, if successful, would provide a malicious user who is connected to an isolated guest network access to the corporate network?

  • A. VLAN hopping
  • B. On-path attack
  • C. IP spoofing
  • D. Evil twin

Answer: A

Explanation:
The attack which, if successful, would provide a malicious user who is connected to an isolated guest network access to the corporate network is VLAN hopping. VLAN hopping is an attack technique which involves tricking a switch into sending traffic from one VLAN to another. This is done by sending specially crafted packets, which force the switch to send traffic from one VLAN to another, thus allowing the malicious user to gain access to the corporate network.
VLAN hopping is an attack technique which involves tricking a switch into sending traffic from one VLAN to another. This is done by sending specially crafted packets, which force the switch to send traffic from one VLAN to another, thus allowing the malicious user to gain access to the corporate network. According to the CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Exam Guide VLAN hopping is a type of attack that is used to gain access to network resources that are not meant to be accessible by a user on a guest network.

NEW QUESTION 10

The following instructions were published about the proper network configuration for a videoconferencing device:
"Configure a valid static RFC1918 address for your network. Check the option to use a connection over NAT."
Which of the following is a valid IP address configuration for the device?

  • A. FE80::1
  • B. 100.64.0.1
  • C. 169.254.1.2
  • D. 172.19.0.2
  • E. 224.0.0.12

Answer: D

Explanation:
172.19.0.2 is a valid IP address configuration for the device that uses a static RFC1918 address for the network and allows for a connection over NAT (Network Address Translation). RFC1918 addresses are private IP addresses that are not routable on the public Internet and are used for internal networks. The RFC1918 address ranges are 10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/12, and 192.168.0.0/16. NAT is a technique that translates private IP addresses to public IP addresses when communicating with external networks, such as the Internet. FE80::1 is an IPv6 link-local address that is not a static RFC1918 address and does not allow for a connection over NAT. 100.64.0.1 is an IPv4 address that belongs to the shared address space range (100.64.0.0/10) that is used for carrier-grade NAT (CGN) between service providers and subscribers, which is not a static RFC1918 address and does not allow for a connection over NAT. 169.254.1.2 is an IPv4 link-local address that is automatically assigned by a device when it cannot obtain an IP address from a DHCP server or manual configuration, which is not a static RFC1918 address and does not allow for a connection over NAT. 224.0.0.12 is an IPv4 multicast address that is used for VRRP (Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol), which is not a static RFC1918 address and does not allow for a connection over NAT.

NEW QUESTION 11

Which of the following is a benefit of the spine-and-leaf network topology?

  • A. Increased network security
  • B. Stable network latency
  • C. Simplified network management
  • D. Eliminated need for inter-VLAN routing

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 12

A network administrator needs to query the NSs for a remote application. Which of the following commands would BEST help the administrator accomplish this task?

  • A. dig
  • B. arp
  • C. show interface
  • D. hostname

Answer: A

Explanation:
The dig command is used to query the NSs for a remote application. It is a command-line tool that is commonly used to troubleshoot DNS issues. When used with specific options, dig can be used to obtain information about domain names, IP addresses, and DNS records. References: Network+ Certification Study Guide, Chapter 3: Network Infrastructure

NEW QUESTION 13

Which of the following is a document that states what the minimum performance expectations are within a network?

  • A. Memorandum of understanding
  • B. Service-level agreement
  • C. Non-disclosure agreement
  • D. Baseline metrics

Answer: B

Explanation:
A service-level agreement (SLA) is a document that states what the minimum performance expectations are within a network, such as uptime, throughput, latency, and security. An SLA is usually signed between a service provider and a customer, and it specifies the penalties or remedies if the service level is not met

NEW QUESTION 14

A user reports having intermittent connectivity issues to the company network. The network configuration for the user reveals the following:
IP address: 192.168.1.10
Subnet mask: 255.255.255.0
Default gateway: 192.168.1.254
The network switch shows the following ARP table:
N10-009 dumps exhibit
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the user's connection issues?

  • A. A port with incorrect VLAN assigned
  • B. A switch with spanning tree conflict
  • C. Another PC with manually configured IP
  • D. A router with overlapping route tables

Answer: C

Explanation:
This is the most likely cause of the user’s connection issues, because the ARP table of the
switch shows that there are two devices with the same IP address of 192.168.1.10, but different MAC addresses. This indicates that there is an IP address conflict on the network, where two devices are trying to use the same IP address. This can cause intermittent connectivity issues, as the switch may not be able to forward packets to the correct destination .

NEW QUESTION 15

A network technician 13 troubleshooting a network issue for employees who have reported Issues with speed when accessing a server in another subnet. The server is in another building that is 410ft (125m) away from the employees' building. The 10GBASE-T connection between the two buildings uses Cat 5e. Which of the following BEST explains the speed issue?

  • A. The connection type is not rated for that distance
  • B. A broadcast storm is occurring on the subnet.
  • C. The cable run has interference on it
  • D. The connection should be made using a Cat 6 cable

Answer: D

Explanation:
The 10GBASE-T connection between the two buildings uses Cat 5e, which is not rated for a distance of 410ft (125m). According to the CompTIA Network+ Study Manual, for 10GBASE-T connections, "Cat 5e is rated for up to 55m, Cat 6a is rated for 100m, and Cat 7 is rated for 150m." Therefore, the speed issue is likely due to the fact that the connection type is not rated for the distance between the two buildings. To resolve the issue, the technician should consider using a Cat 6a or Cat 7 cable to increase the distance the connection is rated for.

NEW QUESTION 16

Which of the following types of data center architectures will MOST likely be used in a large SDN and can be extended beyond the data center?

  • A. iSCSI
  • B. FCoE
  • C. Three-tiered network
  • D. Spine and leaf
  • E. Top-of-rack switching

Answer: D

Explanation:
The type of data center architecture that will most likely be used in a large SDN and can be extended beyond the data center is spine and leaf. Spine and leaf is a network topology that consists of two layers of switches: spine switches and leaf switches. Spine switches are interconnected to each other and form the core of the network, while leaf switches are connected to each spine switch and form the access layer of the network. Spine and leaf topology provides high scalability, performance, and flexibility for data center networks, especially for SDN (Software Defined Networking) environments that require dynamic traffic flows and virtualization. References: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 16; The Official CompTIA Network+ Student Guide (Exam N10-008), page 1-9.

NEW QUESTION 17

Which of the following topologies requires me MOST connections when designing a network?

  • A. Mesh
  • B. Star
  • C. Bus
  • D. Ring

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 18

Which of the following would be used to enforce and schedule critical updates with supervisory approval and include backup plans in case of failure?

  • A. Business continuity plan
  • B. Onboarding and offboarding policies
  • C. Acceptable use policy
  • D. System life cycle
  • E. Change management

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 19

A network administrator has received calls every day for the past few weeks from three users who cannot access the network. The administrator asks all the users to reboot their PCs, but the same users still cannot access the system. The following day, three different users report the same issue, and the administrator asks them all to reboot their PCs; however, this does not fix the issue. Which of the following is MOST likely occurring?

  • A. Incorrect firewall settings
  • B. Inappropriate VLAN assignment
  • C. Hardware failure
  • D. Overloaded CAM table in switch
  • E. DHCP scope exhaustion

Answer: E

NEW QUESTION 20

A network is experiencing a number of CRC errors during normal network communication. At which of the following layers of the OSI model will the administrator MOST likely start to troubleshoot?

  • A. Layer 1
  • B. Layer 2
  • C. Layer 3
  • D. Layer 4
  • E. Layer 5
  • F. Layer 6
  • G. Layer 7

Answer: A

Explanation:
CRC errors are cyclic redundancy check errors that occur when data is corrupted during transmission. CRC errors are usually caused by physical layer issues such as faulty cables, connectors, ports, or interference. The network administrator will most likely start to troubleshoot at layer 1 of the OSI model, which is the physical layer that deals with the transmission of bits over a medium. References: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives Version 2.0 (Exam Number: N10-006), Domain 4.0 Network Troubleshooting and Tools, Objective 4.1 Given a scenario, implement network troubleshooting methodology.

NEW QUESTION 21
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