Top Tips Of Rebirth N10-009 Training

NEW QUESTION 1

A network administrator needs to connect two routers in a point-to-point configuration and conserve IP space. Which of the following subnets should the administrator use?

• A. /24
• B. /26
• C. /28
• D. /30

Answer: D

Explanation:
A /30 subnet is the smallest possible subnet that can be used for a point-to-point configuration between two routers. A /30 subnet has only two usable host addresses, one for each router, and a network address and a broadcast address. A /30 subnet conserves IP space by minimizing the number of wasted addresses. A /24, /26, or /28 subnet would have more usable host addresses than needed for a point-to-point configuration and would waste IP space.
References:
✑ Routing Technologies – N10-008 CompTIA Network+ : 2.21
✑ CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 10

NEW QUESTION 2

A technician is troubleshooting a network switch that seems to stop responding to requests intermittently whenever the logging level is set for debugging. Which of the following metrics should the technician check to begin troubleshooting the issue?

• A. Audit logs
• B. CPU utilization
• C. CRC errors
• D. Jitter

Answer: B

Explanation:
CPU utilization is a metric that measures the percentage of time a CPU spends executing instructions. When the logging level is set for debugging, the router may generate a large amount of logging data, which can increase CPU utilization and cause the router to stop responding to requests intermittently. References:
✑ Network+ N10-008 Objectives: 2.1 Given a scenario, troubleshoot common physical connectivity issues.

NEW QUESTION 3

Which of the following OSI model layers would allow a user to access and download files from a remote computer?

• A. Session
• B. Presentation
• C. Network
• D. Application

Answer: D

Explanation:
The application layer of the OSI model (Open Systems Interconnection) is responsible for providing services to applications that allow users to access and download files from a remote computer. These services include file transfer, email, and web access, as well as other related services. In order for a user to access and download files from a remote computer, the application layer must provide the necessary services that allow the user to interact with the remote computer.

NEW QUESTION 4

A technician performed a manual reconfiguration of a firewall, and network connectivity was reestablished. Some connection events that were previously sent to a syslog server are no longer being generated by the flrewal Which of Vie following should the technician perform to fix the Issue?

• A. Adjust the proper logging level on the new firewall.
• B. Tune the filter for logging the severity level on the syslog server.
• C. Activate NetFlow traffic between the syslog server and the firewall
• D. Restart the SNMP service running on the syslog server.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Logging level is a setting that determines what types of events are recorded by a device and sent to a syslog server. Different logging levels have different severity levels, ranging from emergency to debug. If the technician performed a manual reconfiguration of the firewall, it is possible that the logging level was changed or reset to a lower level that does not include the connection events that were previously sent to the syslog server. To fix the issue, the technician should adjust the proper logging level on the new firewall to match the desired level of detail and severity for the connection events. References: Network+ Study Guide Objective 3.4: Explain common scanning, monitoring and patching processes and summarize their expected outputs. Subobjective: Syslog.

NEW QUESTION 5

Client devices cannot enter a network, and the network administrator determines the DHCP scope is exhausted. The administrator wants to avoid creating a new DHCP pool. Which of the following can the administrator perform to resolve the issue?

• A. Install load balancers
• B. Install more switches
• C. Decrease the number of VLANs
• D. Reduce the lease time

Answer: D

Explanation:
To resolve the issue of DHCP scope exhaustion without creating a new DHCP pool, the administrator can reduce the lease time. By decreasing the lease time, the IP addresses assigned by DHCP will be released back to the DHCP scope more quickly, allowing them to be assigned to new devices.
References:
✑ CompTIA Network+ Certification Study Guide, Exam N10-007, Fourth Edition, Chapter 2: The OSI Model and Networking Protocols, Objective 2.3: Given a scenario, implement and configure the appropriate addressing schema.
✑ https://www.networkcomputing.com/data-centers/10-tips-optimizing-dhcp- performance

NEW QUESTION 6

Which of the following network management methods is able to perform various automated tasks?

• A. SSH
• B. CLI
• C. GUI
• D. API

Answer: D

Explanation:
API stands for Application Programming Interface, which is a set of rules and protocols that allow different software applications to communicate and exchange data. Network automation can use APIs to perform various automated tasks, such as configuring devices, provisioning resources, monitoring performance, and optimizing networks. APIs can enable network automation to interact with different network elements, platforms, and services, regardless of their vendor, technology, or architecture.
The other options are not correct because:
✑ SSH stands for Secure Shell, which is a protocol that allows secure remote access to a network device. SSH can be used to manually configure and manage a network device, but it does not automate network tasks by itself.
✑ CLI stands for Command-Line Interface, which is a text-based interface that allows users to interact with a network device by typing commands. CLI can be used to manually configure and manage a network device, but it does not automate network tasks by itself.
✑ GUI stands for Graphical User Interface, which is a visual interface that allows users to interact with a network device by using icons, menus, and windows. GUI can be used to manually configure and manage a network device, but it does not automate network tasks by itself.

NEW QUESTION 7

A corporate client is experiencing global system outages. The IT team has identified multiple potential underlying causes throughout the enterprise Each team member has been assigned an area to trouble shoot. Which of the following approaches is being used?

• A. Divide-and-conquer
• B. Top-to-bottom
• C. Bottom-to-top
• D. Determine if anything changed

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 8

A technician is troubleshooting a previously encountered issue. Which of the following should the technician reference to find what solution was implemented to resolve the issue?

• A. Standard operating procedures
• B. Configuration baseline documents
• C. Work instructions
• D. Change management documentation

Answer: D

Explanation:
Change management documentation is a record of the changes that have been made to a system or process, including the reason, date, time, and impact of each change. A technician can reference this documentation to find what solution was implemented to resolve a previously encountered issue, as well as any potential side effects or dependencies of the change. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is- change-management

NEW QUESTION 9

An application team is deploying a new application. The application team would like the network team to monitor network performance and create alerts if fluctuations in the round- trip time occur for that traffic. Which of the following should the network team monitor to meet this requirement?

• A. Bandwidth
• B. Latency
• C. Loss
• D. Cyclic redundancy check

Answer: B

Explanation:
Latency, also known as round-trip time (RTT), is the time it takes for a data packet to travel from a source to its destination and back again. It is a key indicator of network performance and can be used to identify fluctuations that may impact the user experience of an application.
Bandwidth, loss, and cyclic redundancy check (CRC) are other important network performance metrics, but they are not directly related to the application team's requirement to monitor for fluctuations in RTT.
References:
✑ CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Exam Objectives, Objective 1.6: Network Performance Monitoring
✑ CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Study Guide, Chapter 10: Network Performance Monitoring and Troubleshooting
Additional Notes:
✑ The network team can use a variety of tools and techniques to monitor RTT, such as ping, traceroute, and network monitoring software.
✑ When setting up alerts, the network team should consider the acceptable range of RTT for the application. They should also configure alerts to trigger at different levels of severity, so that they can take prompt action to resolve any issues.

NEW QUESTION 10

Which of the following is used when a workstation sends a DHCP broadcast to a server on another LAN?

• A. Reservation
• B. Dynamic assignment
• C. Helper address
• D. DHCP offer

Answer: C

Explanation:
A helper address is an IP address that is configured on a router interface to forward DHCP broadcast messages to a DHCP server on another LAN. A DHCP broadcast message is a message that a workstation sends when it needs to obtain an IP address from a DHCP server. Since broadcast messages are not routed across different networks, a helper address is needed to relay the DHCP broadcast message to the DHCP server on another network. References: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/network-n10-008- study-guide (page 199)

NEW QUESTION 11

A client moving into a new office wants the IP network set up to accommodate 412 network-connected devices that are all on the same subnet. The subnet needs to be as small as possible. Which of the following subnet masks should be used to achieve the required result?

• A. 255.255.0.0
• B. 255.255.252.0
• C. 255.255.254.0
• D. 255.255.255.0

Answer: B

Explanation:
255.255.252.0 is a subnet mask that allows for 1022 network-connected devices on the same subnet, which is the smallest subnet that can accommodate 412 devices. The subnet mask determines how many bits are used for the network portion and how many bits are used for the host portion of an IP address. A smaller subnet mask means more bits are used for the network portion and less bits are used for the host portion, which reduces the number of available hosts on the subnet. 255.255.0.0 allows for 65534 hosts on the same subnet, which is too large. 255.255.254.0 allows for 510 hosts on the same subnet, which is also too large. 255.255.255.0 allows for 254 hosts on the same subnet, which is too small.

NEW QUESTION 12

Which of the following connector types would have the MOST flexibility?

• A. SFP
• B. BNC
• C. LC
• D. RJ45

Answer: A

Explanation:
SFP (Small Form-factor Pluggable) is a connector type that has the most flexibility. It is a hot-swappable transceiver that can support different speeds, distances, and media types depending on the module inserted. It can be used for both copper and fiber connections and supports various protocols such as Ethernet, Fibre Channel, and SONET. References: https://www.fs.com/what-is-sfp-transceiver-aid-11.html

NEW QUESTION 13

A technician is trying to determine whether an LACP bundle is fully operational. Which of the following commands will the technician MOST likely use?

• A. show interface
• B. show config
• C. how route
• D. show arp

Answer: A

Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/optical/cpt/r9_3/command/reference/cpt93_cr/cpt93
_cr_chapter_01000.html

NEW QUESTION 14

Users are reporting intermittent Wi-Fi connectivity in specific parts of a building. Which of the following should the network administrator check FIRST when troubleshooting this issue? (Select TWO).

• A. Site survey
• B. EIRP
• C. AP placement
• D. Captive portal
• E. SSID assignment
• F. AP association time

Answer: AC

Explanation:
This is a coverage issue. WAP placement and power need to be checked. Site survey should be done NEXT because it takes a while.

NEW QUESTION 15

A network technician has determined the cause of a network disruption. Which of the following is the NEXT step for the technician to perform?

• A. Validate the findings in a top-to-bottom approach
• B. Duplicate the issue, if possible
• C. Establish a plan of action to resolve the issue
• D. Document the findings and actions

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 16

A network security engineer locates an unapproved wireless bridge connected to the corporate LAN that is broadcasting a hidden SSID, providing unauthenticated access to internal resources. Which of the following types of attacks BEST describes this finding?

• A. Rogue access point Most Voted
• B. Evil twin
• C. ARP spoofing
• D. VLAN hopping

Answer: A

Explanation:
A rogue access point is an illegitimate access point plugged into a network to create a bypass from outside into the legitimate network. By contrast, an evil twin is a copy of a legitimate access point.

NEW QUESTION 17

During an annual review of policy documents, a company decided to adjust its recovery time frames. The company agreed that critical applications can be down for no more than six hours, and the acceptable amount of data loss is no more than two hours. Which of the following should be documented as the RPO?

• A. Two hours
• B. Four hours
• C. Six hours
• D. Eight hours

Answer: A

Explanation:
“ RPO designates the variable amount of data that will be lost or will have to be re-entered during network downtime. RTO designates the amount of “real time” that can pass before the disruption begins to seriously and unacceptably impede the flow of normal business operations."

NEW QUESTION 18

A junior network administrator is auditing the company network and notices incrementing input errors on a long-range microwave interface. Which of the following is the most likely reason for the errors?

• A. The parabolic signal is misaligned.
• B. The omnidirectional signal is being jammed.
• C. The omnidirectional signal is not strong enough to receive properly.
• D. The parabolic signal uses improper routing protocols.

Answer: A

Explanation:
A long-range microwave interface is a type of wireless communication that uses high- frequency radio waves to transmit and receive data over long distances. A long-range microwave interface typically uses a parabolic antenna, also known as a dish antenna, to focus the radio waves into a narrow beam that can travel farther and with less interference than an omnidirectional antenna, which radiates the radio waves in all directions1.
One of the most common causes of input errors on a long-range microwave interface is the misalignment of the parabolic antenna. Input errors are errors that occur when the receiver cannot properly decode or process the incoming signal. If the parabolic antenna is not aligned correctly with the transmitter, the receiver may not be able to capture the full strength of the signal, or it may pick up unwanted noise or interference from other sources. This can result in corrupted or lost data, which will increase the input error count23.
To troubleshoot this issue, the junior network administrator should check the alignment of the parabolic antenna and make sure it is pointing directly at the transmitter. The administrator can use tools such as a spectrum analyzer, a signal strength meter, or a path alignment tool to measure and adjust the signal quality and alignment of the antenna24. The other options are not likely reasons for the input errors on a long-range microwave interface. A long-range microwave interface does not use an omnidirectional signal, so it cannot be jammed or weakened by other sources. The parabolic signal does not depend on the routing protocols used by the network, so it cannot be affected by improper routing protocols.

NEW QUESTION 19

An IT administrator needs to connect older smart-plug devices to the network. The administrator wants to prevent future issues from occurring by using an 802.11 standard that only operates on the 2.4GHz frequency. Which of the following standards should the administrator choose?

• A. 802.11a
• B. 802.11ac
• C. 802.11ax
• D. 802.11b

Answer: D

Explanation:
802.11b is a wireless networking standard that operates on the 2.4 GHz frequency band. It supports a maximum data rate of 11 Mbps and has a range of about 35 meters indoors and 140 meters outdoors. 802.11b is compatible with older smart-plug devices that use the same frequency band, but it may suffer from interference from other devices that also use the 2.4 GHz band, such as microwave ovens, Bluetooth devices, and cordless phones.

NEW QUESTION 20

Which of the following is most likely responsible for the security and handling of personal data in Europe?

• A. GDPR
• B. SCADA
• C. SAML
• D. PCI DSS

Answer: A

Explanation:
GDPR stands for General Data Protection Regulation, which is a European Union
regulation on information privacy and security. It applies to any organization that collects or processes personal data of individuals in the EU, and it sets out rules and requirements for data protection, consent, breach notification, and enforcement1
References1: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/General_Data_Protection_Regulation

NEW QUESTION 21
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