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NEW QUESTION 1

In what product should the quality criteria for a specialist product be recorded?

  • A. Quality Management Strategy
  • B. Quality Register
  • C. Product Description
  • D. Project Product Description

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 2

Which is NOT represented by one of the three primary categories of stakeholder identified in PRINCE2?

  • A. Those with a financial interest in the project
  • B. Those who will manage the project on a day-to-day basis
  • C. Those who will specify the desired outputs of the project
  • D. Those who will create the project's outputs

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 3

Which does a Project Manager produce to define and control the work to be done?

  • A. Configuration Item Record
  • B. Stage scope tolerance
  • C. Team Plan
  • D. Work Package

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 4

Which is a responsibility of a risk owner?

  • A. Identify risks to the project that might occur in their department
  • B. Own and authorize theuse of the risk budget to fund risk responses
  • C. Manage, monitor and control all aspects of an assigned risk
  • D. Determine project risk appetite

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 5

Identify the missing word in the following sentence, A purpose of the [?] theme is to control any unacceptable deviations from the project's objectives.

  • A. Change
  • B. Plans
  • C. Progress
  • D. Risk

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 6

When are tolerances for a Work Package agreed?

  • A. When acceptinga Work Package
  • B. As work on each product within the Work Package begins
  • C. Once ail products have been developed and approved
  • D. When the Stage Plan is authorized by the Project Board

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 7

Which is a true statement about time-driven controls?

  • A. Time-driven controls are used for monitoring the progress of Work Packages and management stages
  • B. Time-driven controls take place when specific events happen
  • C. Time-driven controls are produced at the end of a stage
  • D. An Exception Report is a time-driven control

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 8

Which is a purpose of a Project Brief?

  • A. Enable the assembly of the project mandate
  • B. Describe the reporting requirements of the various layers of management involved with the project
  • C. Describe how changes to products will be controlled
  • D. Provide a solid basis for the initiation of the project

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 9

Which is the Issue Register NOT used for?

  • A. Capture external events that are impacting a stage
  • B. Record information about a deviation in stage tolerance
  • C. Capture any threats or opportunities that might have an impact on astage
  • D. Record any problems identified when authorizing a Work Package

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 10

Which of the following statements about customer's quality expectations and acceptance criteria are true?
1. Customer's quality expectations form a specific and precise list of Acceptance criteria are often expressed in broad terms as a means to gain common understanding of general quality requirements.
2. Measurable criteria that a project product should meet in order to be acceptable to key
stakeholders,

  • A. Only 1 is true
  • B. Only 2 is true
  • C. Both 1 and 2 are true
  • D. Neither 1 or 2 are true

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 11

Which of the following is NOT a purpose of the Closing a Project process?

  • A. Plan the activities required to close a project
  • B. Enable a comparison of the original objectives of a project against what was actually achieved
  • C. Enable premature closureif the Project Board request that a project should no longer continue
  • D. Provide a fixed point at which acceptance for the project product is confirmed

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 12

What process provides the information required to decide whether to authorize the delivery of a project?

  • A. Directing a Project
  • B. Initiating a Project
  • C. Managing Product Delivery
  • D. Starting up a Project

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 13

How is a Benefits Review Plan used in the Closing a Project process?

  • A. Checked for inclusion of activities to confirm those benefits which cannot be measured until after project closure
  • B. To capture the baseline measures against which to assess benefits
  • C. To capture side-effects (beneficial or adverse) identified during post-project benefits reviews
  • D. To gain approval for the post-project activities and transferresponsibility to corporate or programme management

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 14

Which does the Executive need to ensure is in place before the project is initiated?

  • A. All Work Packages are authorized
  • B. An understanding of how the project will contribute to corporate objectives
  • C. The Project Plan has been approved
  • D. The Project Initiation Documentation is complete

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 15

Which should be funded by a change budget?

  • A. Increase in agreed scope
  • B. Initiation stage
  • C. Change Authority
  • D. Handover activities

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 16

Why is the Initiating a Project process used?

  • A. To decide which project approach is suitable for the project
  • B. To fully understand how the project objectives will be achieved before committing significant resources
  • C. To produce the required Work Packages
  • D. To enable corporate or programme management to give authorization to deliver a project

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 17

Identify the missing word in the following sentence. The [?] theme defines that the Project Board is responsible for the overall direction and management of the project,

  • A. Progress
  • B. Plans
  • C. Organization
  • D. Business Case

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 18

Which is an objective of the quality review technique?

  • A. To baseline a product
  • B. To provide a common understanding of what products a project will create
  • C. To define the quality methods required within a project
  • D. To determine the quality responsibilities of a project team

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 19

Which describes risk probability?

  • A. Level of risks which the project can tolerate before escalating to the Project Board
  • B. Probable effect on the project delivering its objectives
  • C. Timeframe within which the risk may occur
  • D. A measure of the likelihood of the risk occurring

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 20

Which enables the project's products and all interdependencies to be clearly identified and documented?

  • A. Product breakdown structure
  • B. Quality Management Strategy
  • C. Product-based planning technique
  • D. Quality review technique

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 21

Why is it crucial that the Project Product Description clearly defines acceptance methods?

  • A. Enables Project Assurance to authorize quality activities
  • B. Defines how all project products will be reviewed and approved
  • C. Defines how it will be proven that the completed project product meets the customer's expectations
  • D. Provides confirmation that all project products have met their quality criteria

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 22

During the Managing a Stage Boundary process, what is reviewed and updated to provide the information needed by the Project Board for assessing the continuing viability of the project?

  • A. Benefits Review Plan
  • B. Product Status Account
  • C. Business Case
  • D. Project Plan

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 23

Which of the following statements about the Project Initiation Documentation are true?
1. The Project Initiation Documentation is used to ensure that a sound basis exists exists before the Project Board authorizes a project.
2. The Project Initiation Documentation should be updated at the end of each stage to reflect the current status of a project before the Project Board authorizes a project.

  • A. Only 1 is true
  • B. Only 2 is true
  • C. Both 1 and 2 are true
  • D. Neither 1 or 2 are true

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 24

Which role is part of the Project Board?

  • A. Corporate or programme management
  • B. Risk owner
  • C. Project Manager
  • D. Senior Supplier

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 25

What product should be used to confirm the version number of ail products in a particular stage?

  • A. Issue Register
  • B. Product Status Account
  • C. Product Description
  • D. Configuration Item Record

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 26

Which is a purpose of an Exception Plan?

  • A. Show the reason for the tolerance deviation from a Stage Plan or Project Plan
  • B. Reduce the number of exception assessments, by agreeing a budget to cover the costs of any requests for change
  • C. Identify the actions required to recover from the effect ofa tolerance deviation
  • D. Define the changes which are within the scope of the change budget

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 27

Which statement applies to Stage Plans?

  • A. Always have the same duration as the Project Plan
  • B. Are produced at the same time as the Project Initiation Documentation
  • C. Assist the Project Manager inthe day-to-day running and control of the project
  • D. Provide a baseline against which the Project Board monitor overall progress

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 28

Which should be funded by a change budget?

  • A. Increase in agreedscope
  • B. Increase in agreed scope
  • C. Increase in agreed scope
  • D. Handover activities

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 29
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