Update 220-1102 Free Samples For CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2 Certification

NEW QUESTION 1
A technician needs to ensure that USB devices are not suspended by the operating system. Which of the following Control Panel utilities should the technician use to configure the setting?

• A. System
• B. Power Options
• C. Devices and Printers
• D. Ease of Access

Answer: B

Explanation:
Power Options is a Control Panel utility that allows users to configure the power settings of their computer, such as when to turn off the display, when to put the computer to sleep, and how to manage the battery life. Power Options also allows users to configure the USB selective suspend setting, which is a feature that automatically suspends the power supply to USB devices that are not in use, in order to save energy. A user can disable this setting if they want to ensure that USB devices are not suspended by the operating system. System, Devices and Printers, and Ease of Access are not Control Panel utilities that can be used to configure the USB selective suspend setting.

NEW QUESTION 2
A technician wants to install Developer Mode on a Windows laptop but is receiving a "failed to install package" message. Which of the following should the technician do first?

• A. Ensure internet connectivity.
• B. Check for Windows updates.
• C. Enable SSH.
• D. Reboot computer.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Developer Mode on Windows 10 is a feature that allows developers to test and debug their applications on their devices, as well as sideload apps and access other developer tools12. To enable Developer Mode, the user needs to go to the Settings app, select Update & Security, choose For Developers, and switch to Developer Mode123. However, enabling Developer Mode requires internet connectivity, as Windows will download and install a package of features, such as Windows Device Portal and SSH services, that are
necessary for Developer Mode124. If the user does not have internet connectivity, they will receive a “failed to install package” message when trying to enable Developer Mode4. Therefore, the first thing that the technician should do is to ensure that the laptop has internet access, either through Wi-Fi or Ethernet, and then try to enable Developer Mode again4

NEW QUESTION 3
A change advisory board authorized a setting change so a technician is permitted to Implement the change. The technician successfully implemented the change. Which of the following should be done next?

• A. Document the date and time of change
• B. Document the purpose of the change.
• C. Document the risk level.
• D. Document the findings of the sandbox test,

Answer: A

Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Document the date and time of change. After implementing a change, the technician should document the date and time of change in the change log or record. This helps to track the change history, monitor the change performance, and identify any issues or incidents related to the change. Documenting thedate and time of change is also a good practice for auditing and compliance purposes. Documenting the purpose of the change (B) and the risk level © are steps that should be done before implementing the change, not after. These are important information that help to justify, prioritize, and plan the change. The purpose of the change should explain why the change is needed and what benefits it will bring to the organization. The risk level should assess the potential impact and probability of the change causing any problems or disruptions to the business.
Documenting the findings of the sandbox test (D) is also a step that should be done before implementing the change, not after. A sandbox test is a way of testing the change in an isolated environment that mimics the production environment. This helps to verify that the change works as expected and does not cause any errors or conflicts with other systems or processes. The findings of the sandbox test should be documented and reviewed by the change advisory board (CAB) before approving the change for implementation. References:
✑ What is a Change Advisory Board? (Overview, Roles, and Responsibilities)
✑ Best Practices in Change Management
✑ 10 Top change management best practices

NEW QUESTION 4
Which of the following filesystem formats would be the BEST choice to ensure read and write compatibility of USB flash drives across several generations of Microsoft operating systems?

• A. APFS
• B. ext4
• C. CDFS
• D. FAT32

Answer: D

Explanation:
The best filesystem format to ensure read and write compatibility of USB flash drives across several generations of Microsoft operating systems is FAT32. FAT32 stands for File Allocation Table 32-bit and is a filesystem format that organizes and manages files and folders on storage devices using 32-bit clusters. FAT32 is compatible with most Microsoft operating systems since Windows 95 OSR2, as well as other operating systems such as Linux and Mac OS X. FAT32 can support storage devices up to 2TB in size and files up to 4GB in size. APFS stands for Apple File System and is a filesystem format that organizes and manages files and folders on storage devices using encryption, snapshots and cloning features. APFS is compatible with Mac OS X 10.13 High Sierra and later versions but not with Microsoft operating systems natively. Ext4 stands for Fourth Extended File System and is a filesystem format that organizes and manages files and folders on storage devices using journaling, extents and delayed allocation features. Ext4 is compatible with Linux operating systems but not with Microsoft operating systems natively.

NEW QUESTION 5
A technician needs to format a USB drive to transfer 20GB of data from a Linux computer to a Windows computer. Which of the following filesystems will the technician MOST likely use?

• A. FAT32
• B. ext4
• C. NTFS
• D. exFAT

Answer: D

Explanation:
exFAT is a file system that is supported by both Linux and Windows and can handle large files1.

NEW QUESTION 6
A systems administrator received a request to limit the amount of cellular data a user's Windows 10 tablet can utilize when traveling. Which of the following can the administrator do to best solve the user's issue?

• A. Turn on airplane mode.
• B. Set the connection to be metered.
• C. Configure the device to use a static IP address.
• D. Enable the Windows Defender Firewall.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Setting the connection to be metered is the best solution for limiting the amount of cellular data a user’s Windows 10 tablet can utilize when traveling. A metered connection is a network connection that has a data limit or charges fees based on the amount of data used. Windows 10 allows users to set any network connection as metered, which reduces the amount of data that Windows and some apps use in the background. For example, setting a connection as metered will prevent Windows from downloading updates automatically, stop some apps from syncing data online, and disable some live tiles on the Start menu. Setting a connection as metered can help users save cellular data and avoid extra charges when traveling. Turning on airplane mode, configuring the device to use a static IP address, and enabling the Windows Defender Firewall are not effective solutions for limiting the amount of cellular data a user’s Windows 10 tablet can utilize when traveling. Turning on airplane mode will disable all wireless connections on the device, including Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, and cellular data. This will prevent the user from accessing any online services or applications on the tablet. Configuring the device to use a static IP address will assign a fixed IP address to the device instead of obtaining one dynamically from a DHCP server. This will not affect the amount of cellular data the device uses, and it may cause IP conflicts or connectivity issues on some networks. Enabling the Windows Defender Firewall will block or allow incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined or custom rules. This will not reduce the amount of cellular data the device
uses, and it may interfere with some apps or services that require network access. References:
✑ Official CompTIA learning resources CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2, page 19
✑ CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide: Core 1 Exam 220-1101 and Core 2 Exam …, page 108

NEW QUESTION 7
Which of the following options should MOST likely be considered when preserving data from a hard drive for forensic analysis? (Select TWO).

• A. Licensing agreements
• B. Chain of custody
• C. Incident management documentation
• D. Data integrity
• E. Material safety data sheet
• F. Retention requirements

Answer: B

Explanation:
Chain of custody and data integrity are two options that should most likely be considered when preserving data from a hard drive for forensic analysis. Chain of custody refers to the documentation and tracking of who has access to the data and how it is handled, stored, and transferred. Data integrity refers to the assurance that the data has not been altered, corrupted, or tampered with during the preservation process

NEW QUESTION 8
A systems administrator is experiencing Issues connecting from a laptop to the corporate network using PKI. Which to the following tools can the systems administrator use to help remediate the issue?

• A. certmgr.msc
• B. msconfig.exe
• C. lusrmgr.msc
• D. perfmon.msc

Answer: A

Explanation:
certmgr.msc is a tool that can be used to troubleshoot issues with PKI (public key infrastructure) on a Windows machine. It allows a system administrator to view, manage and import certificates, as well as check their validity, expiration and revocation status. msconfig.exe, lusrmgr.msc and perfmon.msc are other tools that can be used for different purposes on a Windows machine, but they are not related to PKI. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-certmgr-msc https://www.comptia.org/certifications/a

NEW QUESTION 9
A user's corporate laptop with proprietary work Information was stolen from a coffee shop. The user togged in to the laptop with a simple password. and no other security mechanisms were in place. Which of the following would MOST likely prevent the stored data from being recovered?

• A. Biometrics
• B. Full disk encryption
• C. Enforced strong system password
• D. Two-factor authentication

Answer: B

Explanation:
Full disk encryption is a security mechanism that encrypts the entire data on a hard drive, making it unreadable without the correct decryption key or password. It can prevent the stored data from being recovered by unauthorized persons who steal or access the laptop. Biometrics, enforced strong system password and two-factor authentication are other security mechanisms, but they only protect the login access to the laptop, not the data on the hard drive. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-full-disk- encryption https://www.comptia.org/certifications/a

NEW QUESTION 10
A user clicks a link in an email. A warning message in the user's browser states the site's certificate cannot be verified. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for a technician to take?

• A. Click proceed.
• B. Report the employee to the human resources department for violating company policy.
• C. Restore the computer from the last known backup.
• D. Close the browser window and report the email to IT security.

Answer: D

Explanation:
A warning message in the user’s browser stating the site’s certificate cannot be verified indicates that the site may be insecure, fraudulent, or malicious. This could be a sign of a phishing attempt, where the sender of the email tries to trick the user into clicking a link that leads to a fake website that mimics a legitimate one, in order to steal the user’s personal or financial information. The most appropriate action for a technician to take in this situation is to close the browser window and report the email to IT security, who can investigate the source and content of the email, and take the necessary steps to protect the user and the network from potential harm. Clicking proceed could expose the user to malware, identity theft, or data breach. Reporting the employee to the human resources department for violating company policy is unnecessary and harsh, as the user may not have been aware of the phishing attempt or the company policy. Restoring the computer from the last known backup is premature and ineffective, as the user may not have been infected by anything, and the backup may not remove the email or the link from the user’s inbox

NEW QUESTION 11
A user reports an issue when connecting a mobile device to Bluetooth. The user states the mobile device's Bluetooth is turned on. Which of the following steps should the technician take NEXT to resolve the issue?

• A. Restart the mobile device.
• B. Turn on airplane mode.
• C. Check that the accessory is ready to pair.
• D. Clear all devices from the phone's Bluetooth settings.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The first step in troubleshooting a Bluetooth connection issue is to check that the accessory is ready to pair with the mobile device. Some accessories may have a button or a switch that needs to be pressed or turned on to initiate pairing mode. If the accessory is not ready to pair, the mobile device will not be able to detect it.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 2 Exam Objectives, Section 2.4

NEW QUESTION 12
A company is experiencing a ODDS attack. Several internal workstations are the source of the traffic Which of the following types of infections are the workstations most likely experiencing? (Select two)

• A. Zombies
• B. Keylogger
• C. Adware
• D. Botnet
• E. Ransomvvare
• F. Spyware

Answer: AD

Explanation:
The correct answers are A and D. Zombies and botnets are types of infections that allow malicious actors to remotely control infected computers and use them to launch distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attacks against a target. A DDoS attack is a type of cyberattack that aims to overwhelm a server or a network with a large volume of traffic from multiple sources, causing it to slow down or crash.
A keylogger is a type of malware that records the keystrokes of a user and sends them to a remote server, often for the purpose of stealing passwords, credit card numbers, or other sensitive information.
Adware is a type of software that displays unwanted advertisements on a user’s computer, often in the form of pop-ups, banners, or redirects. Adware can also collect user data and compromise the security and performance of the system.
Ransomware is a type of malware that encrypts the files or locks the screen of a user’s computer and demands a ransom for their restoration. Ransomware can also threaten to delete or expose the user’s data if the ransom is not paid.
Spyware is a type of software that covertly monitors and collects information about a user’s online activities, such as browsing history, search queries, or personal data. Spyware can also alter the settings or functionality of the user’s system without their consent.

NEW QUESTION 13
A technician is setting up a newly built computer. Which of the following is the fastest way for the technician to install Windows 10?

• A. Factory reset
• B. System Restore
• C. In-place upgrade
• D. Unattended installation

Answer: D

Explanation:
An unattended installation is a method of installing Windows 10 that does not require any user input or interaction during the installation process. An unattended installation can be performed by using an answer file, which is a file that contains all the configuration settings and preferences for the installation, such as the product key, the language, the partition size, and the user accounts. An unattended installation can be the fastest way to install Windows 10, as it automates and streamlines the installation process. Factory reset, System Restore, and in-place upgrade are not methods of installing Windows 10.

NEW QUESTION 14
Which of the following OS types provides a lightweight option for workstations thai need an easy-to-use browser-based interface?

• A. FreeBSD
• B. Chrome OS
• C. macOS
• D. Windows

Answer: B

Explanation:
Chrome OS provides a lightweight option for workstations that need an easy- to-use browser-based interface1

NEW QUESTION 15
A technician was assigned a help desk ticket and resolved the issue. Which of the following should the technician update to assist other technicians in resolving similar issues?

• A. End user training
• B. Progress notes
• C. Knowledge base
• D. Acceptable use policy document

Answer: C

Explanation:
A knowledge base is a centralized repository of information that can be used by technicians to find solutions to common problems, best practices, troubleshooting guides, and other useful resources12. Updating the knowledge base with the details of the
issue and the resolution can help other technicians who encounter similar issues in the future. It can also reduce the number of tickets and improve customer satisfaction3. References1: The Official CompTIA A+ Core 2 Student Guide (Exam 220-1102), page 10-11 2: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 2 Objectives, page 13 3: CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1102) Certification Study Guide, page 10-12

NEW QUESTION 16
A company is deploying mobile phones on a one-to-one basis, but the IT manager is concerned that users will root/jailbreak their phones. Which of the following technologies can be implemented to prevent this issue?

• A. Signed system images
• B. Antivirus
• C. SSO
• D. MDM

Answer: D

Explanation:
MDM stands for Mobile Device Management, and it is a way of remotely managing and securing mobile devices that are used for work purposes1. MDM can enforce policies and restrictions on the devices, such as preventing users from installing unauthorized apps, modifying system settings, or accessing root privileges2. MDM can also monitor device status, wipe data, lock devices, or locate lost or stolen devices1.

NEW QUESTION 17
A user calls the help desk to report that Windows installed updates on a laptop and rebooted overnight. When the laptop started up again, the touchpad was no longer working. The technician thinks the software that controls the touchpad might be the issue. Which of the following tools should the technician use to make adjustments?

• A. eventvwr.msc
• B. perfmon.msc
• C. gpedic.msc
• D. devmgmt.msc

Answer: D

Explanation:
The technician should use devmgmt.msc tool to make adjustments for the touchpad issue after Windows installed updates on a laptop. Devmgmt.msc is a command that opens the Device Manager, which is a utility that allows users to view and manage the hardware devices and drivers installed on a computer. The technician can use the Device Manager to check the status, properties and compatibility of the touchpad device and its driver, and perform actions such as updating, uninstalling or reinstalling the driver, enabling or disabling the device, or scanning for hardware changes. Eventvwr.msc is a command that opens the Event Viewer, which is a utility that allows users to view and monitor the system logs and events. The Event Viewer may provide some information or clues about the touchpad issue, but it does not allow users to manage or troubleshoot the device or its driver directly. Perfmon.msc is a command that opens the Performance Monitor, which is a utility that allows users to measure and analyze the performance of the system

NEW QUESTION 18
Which of the following helps ensure that a piece of evidence extracted from a PC is admissible in a court of law?

• A. Data integrity form
• B. Valid operating system license
• C. Documentation of an incident
• D. Chain of custody

Answer: D

Explanation:
Chain of custody is a process that helps ensure that a piece of evidence extracted from a PC is admissible in a court of law. Chain of custody refers to the documentation and tracking of who handled, accessed, modified, or transferred the evidence, when, where, why, and how. Chain of custody can help establish the authenticity, integrity, and reliability of the evidence, as well as prevent tampering, alteration, or loss of the evidence. Data integrity form, valid operating system license, and documentation of an incident are not processes that can ensure that a piece of evidence extracted from a PC is admissible in a court of law.

NEW QUESTION 19
A technician at a customer site is troubleshooting a laptop A software update needs to be downloaded but the company's proxy is blocking traffic to the update site. Which of the following should the technician perform?

• A. Change the DNS address to 1.1.1.1
• B. Update Group Policy
• C. Add the site to the client's exceptions list
• D. Verity the software license is current.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The technician should add the update site to the client’s exceptions list to bypass the proxy. This can be done through the client’s web browser settings, where the proxy settings can be configured. By adding the update site to the exceptions list, the client will be able to access the site and download the software update.

NEW QUESTION 20
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