Refresh PMP Training Tools For Project Management Professional Certification

NEW QUESTION 1

An input to the Identify Risks process is the:

• A. Risk register.
• B. Risk probability and impact assessment.
• C. Communications management plan.
• D. Risk management plan.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 2

Which input will be used when tasked with developing the human resource plan?

• A. Project management plan
• B. Activity resource requirements
• C. Resource calendar
• D. Project staff assignments

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 3

Which stakeholder communicates with higher levels of management to gather organizational support and promote project benefits?

• A. Portfolio manager
• B. Project sponsor
• C. Project manager
• D. Project management office

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 4

Which of the following processes includes prioritizing risks for subsequent further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact?

• A. Qualitative risk analysis
• B. Quantitative risk analysis
• C. Risk management planning
• D. Risk response planning

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 5

The Monitoring and Controlling Process Group includes processes that:

• A. Establish the scope, objectives, and course of action of a project,
• B. Define a new project or a new phase of an existing project.
• C. Track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of a project.
• D. Complete the work defined in the project management plan.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 6

Which of the following is a conflict resolution technique that emphasizes areas of agreement rather than areas of difference?

• A. Compromising
• B. Collaborating
• C. Smoothing
• D. Problem Solving

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 7

Technical capability, past performance, and intellectual property rights are examples of:

• A. performance measurement criteria
• B. source selection criteria
• C. product acceptance criteria
• D. phase exit criteria

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 8

Which Activity Duration Estimating technique incorporates additional timing for contingency purposes?

• A. Analogous Estimating
• B. Expert Judgment
• C. Optimistic Estimates
• D. Reserve Analysis

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 9

Managing ongoing production of goods and services to ensure business continues efficiently describes which type of management?

• A. Portfolio
• B. Project
• C. Program
• D. Operations

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 10

Which of the following is an output from Control Scope?

• A. Change requests
• B. Variance analysis
• C. Accepted deliverables
• D. Requirements documentation

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 11

What type of reward can hurt team cohesiveness?

• A. Sole-sum
• B. Win-lose
• C. Lose-win
• D. Partial-sum

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 12

An input to the Estimate Activity Resources process is:

• A. Activity resource requirements.
• B. Published estimating data.
• C. Resource calendars.
• D. Resource breakdown structure (RBS).

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 13

What are the identified risks for doing excessive decomposition in a WBS?

• A. Insufficient project funding and disqualification of sellers
• B. Insufficient project funding and ineffective use of resources
• C. Disqualification of sellers and non-productive management efforts
• D. Non-productive management effort and inefficient use of resources

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 14

Budgets reserved for unplanned changes to project scope and cost are:

• A. Contingency reserves.
• B. Management reserves.
• C. Authorized budgets.
• D. Cost baselines.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 15

What quality control tool graphically represents how various elements of a system interrelate?

• A. Control chart
• B. Flowchart
• C. Run chart
• D. Pareto chart

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 16

The only Process Group that comprises processes that typically occur from the beginning to the end of the project life cycle is:

• A. Planning.
• B. Executing,
• C. Monitoring and Controlling.
• D. Closing.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 17

Which Perform Quality Assurance tool or technique is used to identify a problem, discover the underlying causes that lead to it, and develop preventative actions?

• A. Inspection
• B. Quality audits
• C. Design of experiments
• D. Root cause analysis

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 18

Which tool is used to develop technical details within the project management plan?

• A. Expert judgment
• B. Project management methodology
• C. Project management information system (PMIS)
• D. Project selection methods

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 19

Which technique should a project manager use in a situation in which a collaborative approach to conflict management is not possible?

• A. Coaching
• B. Avoidance
• C. Consensus
• D. Influencing

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 20

Which knowledge area employs the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate generation, collection, distribution, storage, retrieval, and ultimate disposition of project information?

• A. Project Risk Management
• B. Project Integration Management
• C. Project Communications Management
• D. Project Quality Management

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 21

Which of the following is an output of the Information Distribution Process?

• A. Project calendar
• B. Communication management plan
• C. Requested changes
• D. Communication requirement plan

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 22

In a weak matrix, the project managers role is:

• A. part-time
• B. full-time
• C. occasional
• D. unlimited

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 23

Who is responsible for developing the project management plan and all related component plans?

• A. Project team
• B. Portfolio manager
• C. Project manager
• D. Project management office

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 24
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